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Results 1 - 10 of 10
Results from: Answers, Notes On or After: Sat 08/23/14 ordered by Date
"Salvation through Jesus Christ is according to 'the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God' (Acts 2:23), and He was pleased to make known His eternal purpose of mercy, unto the fathers, in the form of a series of covenants, which were of different characters and revealed at various times. These covenants enter into the very nature, and pervade with their peculiar qualities the whole system of Divine truth. They have an intimate connection with each other and a common relation to a single purpose, being, in fact, so many successive stages in the unfolding of the scheme of Divine Grace. They treat of the Divine side of things, disclosing the source from which all blessings come to men, and making known the Channel (Christ) through which they flow to them. Each one reveals some new and fundamental aspect of truth, and in considering them in their Scriptural order we may clearly perceive the progress of revelation which they respectively indicated. They set forth the great design of God which was to be accomplished by the Redeemer of His people." --A. W. Pink (1886-1952)
"For even if many men once boasted that they worshipped the Supreme Majesty, the Maker of heaven and earth, yet because they had no Mediator it was not possible for them truly to taste Godís mercy, and thus be persuaded that he was their Father. Accordingly, because they did not hold Christ as their Head, they possessed only a fleeting knowledge of God. From this it also came about that they at last lapsed into crass and foul superstitions and betrayed their own ignorance. So today the [Muslim] Turks, although they proclaim at the top of their lungs that the Creator of heaven and earth is God, still, while repudiating Christ, substitute an idol in place of the true God." --John Calvin
Welcome to the forum. Scripture has a great amount of predictions concerning Israel's destruction. From its very founding in Deuteronomy God promised their destruction (and restoration) if they abandoned his covenant with them. The prophets repeatedly predicted their destruction. And God kept his promise through the Assyrians and Babylonians when they destroyed Israel and Judah respectively. Then they returned from exile. In Christ's day he prophesied again over the coming destruction of Israel and again this came about through a foreign army, the Romans.
However, I suspect you might be asking with regards to the current nation state of Israel. If this is so your question will be necessarily tied up with ones view of end times. Therefore the answer you receive will vary dramatically. As for my view, I believe this verse is relevant though I suggest to you that it refers to the church who is the Israel of God.
Rev 11:7 When they have finished their testimony, the beast that comes up out of the abyss will make war with them, and overcome them and kill them.
Unfortunately you will not receive a reply here from anybody who represents the translators of the NASB. All participants are just like you, those who log on to find a community to discuss questions like yours.
What you ask is an excellent question, yet text criticism principles are hard to explain sometimes. As you seem to be aware, there is a mixed witness in the texts which we have. Diakonos by far has more texts, however the multitude of witnesses to a particular reading is not the only question which a text critic weighs.
Another major question which determines the preferred reading is which of the readings best explain the development of the additional readings? In this case it is really easy to see how a scribe reading one being described as "a fellow worker of God" could see that as a bit much and out of a pious but misguided humility softening the statement to "servant." Now on the flip side it is really hard to imagine some scribe being so bold as to read the original reading of "servant" and then decide he should upgrade us from servants to "fellow workers of God." And this is precisely why groups favor the reading of "fellow servant" as being original rather then the more widely attested "servant."
Now we can't be certain about this. But the reasoning is sound especially given that we know for sure that scribes often changed the text to what they thought would be a more reverent reading when they were copying. I hope this helps and if this type of information is helpful to you I recommend to you "A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament" 2nd edition by Bruce Metzger.
"Someone has rightly stated that the God of American Christianity is the only omnipotent and supreme Lord of all who has no authority to do anything unless He is first granted permission. He can save His children from hell, but He has no right to demand anything from them lest He violate some twisted notion of human autonomy." --Paul Washer