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|NASB||1 Samuel 28:17 "The LORD has done accordingly as He spoke through me; for the LORD has torn the kingdom out of your hand and given it to your neighbor, to David.|
|1 Samuel 28:17 "The LORD has done [to you] just as He said through me [when I was with you]; for the LORD has torn the kingdom out of your hand and given it to your neighbor, to David. [1 Sam 15:22-28]|
|Subject: The Lord has done for Himself or us?|
Bible Note: In comparing the NASB and the NKJ for this verse, I would express my preference for the NASB. I was thinking of how we like to see the affect that our actions have in life's situations. And surely what we do is important in the scheme of things. What we often forget perhaps is that God is in control and ultimately He is doing these things.
Samuel in chapter 28 is telling Saul that his kingdom will be torn from his hands. He did not obey the voice of the Lord and so God has rejected him from being king. 1 Samuel 15:19-23. We might like to think that the actions of man, in this case David, brought about his loss of the kingdom but it was God's judgment and will ultimately.
So in considering 1 Samuel 28:17 should it read as the NKJ, "And the Lord has done for Himself as He spoke by me." The marginal note for the verse has [Or him, i.e. David].
The marginal note for the NASB has [Lit. for himself]. Notice that the note has a lower case "himself". So the thought is that the Lord has done for Saul just as Samuel spoke in 15:26 and has done it also for David here in 28:17 in giving it to Saul's neighbor David. The thought is that the Lord is doing this thing.
Is He doing it for Himself or for Saul and David? How are these things being accomplished?
My interest in this verse was piqued by a comparison with Amos 8:11,12 and how Saul was experiencing a "famine", both for bread and for the words of the Lord.
From the heart, Ray
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