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|NASB||Isaiah 7:10 ¶ Then the LORD spoke again to Ahaz, saying,|
|Isaiah 7:10 ¶ Then the LORD spoke again to [King] Ahaz, saying,|
I appreciate your response.
I'm very sorry to sound oblivious to the abovementioned inquiry as I'm afraid for the most part, I am. This is why I decided to take an introductory course on religion.
I've been doing much research (without much luck before deciding to send you this e-mail) to try to clearly answer the following question that was posed during my last class in that course:
Jews and Christians have very different interpretations of this section of the text. (Isaiah 7:10-16) Try to read it through both perspectives. What might a Jewish reader take from it? What might a Christian think of?
I have been having a hard time with this. I am not very able to properly analyze this section of the Bible in order to disgtinguish between the two perspectives.
In considering your response,
"...In Jewish thinking, the chapter isn't even a Messianic prophecy. They see it strictly as a prophetic utterance of Isaiah for the days of Ahaz. To them, the Messianic issue is a purely Christian eisegesis..."
I'm not clear. Please explain: "Messianic" and "eisegesis"
Also, I referred to Deut 22:23 in the Hebrew Bible and notice that it reads: "If there is a young woman, a virgin already engaged to be married, and a man meets her in the town and lies with her..." ..I don't see "bethulah" .. (my thinking is that, you writing "cf Deut." may have something to do with it?
Lastly, in attempting to do this research, I've read (written by a Jewish author):
"...the word sign in hebrew does not have to be supernatural,it does, however, have to be visible, and a virgin birth could never function as a sign since it is not visible..." and "...(the translation of the hebrew word in verse 14 as virgin is incorrect)..."
I also wasn't very clear about the meaning of this. Am I correct to assume, then, that Jews don't believe that verse of the chapter? If they don't, what is their interpretation?
and again in my research:
"...clearly, the birth of someone (ie. jesus) 100 years later would not have been a sign to ahaz and his people..."
Do the Christians refer to Immanuel as Jesus?
I'm apologize if this post is not clear or written with any major inaccuracies.
Thank you again for your consideration. I'm finding this to be a great help.
Bible Answer: Dear Aretha,
I apologize for not being more clear. I'll see what I can do.
The word Messianic is defined as of or pertaining to the Messiah. In Judaism, the Messiah is God's future, promised savior of Jews. In Christianity, the Messiah is the Lord Jesus Christ. Jews still look forward to the Messiah's coming. Christians look forward to the Messiah's second coming. (The story of the Messiah's birth, life, ministry, teachings, death, and resurrection are recorded in the four Gospels of the New Testament: Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John.)
The word eisegesis is defined as an interpretation of Scripture in which the reader injects his own ideas rather than the intended meaning of the text.
Deuteronomy 22:23 contains the word "virgin." The Old Testament was written in Hebrew. The word is virgin is translated from the Hebrew word "bethulah."
Jews generally interpret Isaiah chapter 7 as relating to events taking place in the time of Ahaz, a king of Judah. Hence, the argument you uncovered in your research.
Yes, Christians do, indeed, call Jesus Immanuel. Let me provide you with the Christian perspective. The apostle Matthew recorded the following:
She will bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins." All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had spoken by the prophet: "Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall call his name Immanuel" (which means, God with us). (Matthew 1:21-23 ESV)
Matthew was specifically writing in reference to the passage in Isaiah 7. The event he was recording was the angelic visitation to Joseph. Joseph was engaged to be married to the virgin Mary. She is the mother of Jesus Christ, although not through the usual manner of impregnation. Mary became pregnant as a miraculous work of God.
Please feel welcome to ask whatever questions you'd like. Just keep in mind that we prefer not to do all the homework for you! :-)
In Him, Doc
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