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Is there sacrifice for sin after Jesus |
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Heb 10:12
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Much of Heb 10 but particularly verses 12 through 18 imply Jesus' sacrifice was complete final and sufficient so that no more offering or sacrifice for sin is necessary. How does this fit with Ezekiel's various directives as in 43:22, 44:29, 46:20 for example. The specific instructions in Ezekiel appear not to be allegorical but specific and detailed. How do we fit these two together. This has been a mystery to me for some time. I look forward to your wisdom. |
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Why did God kill Uzzah? |
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2 Sam 6:6
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Hello Rose. The question isn't so much why God killed Uzzah but why was it necessary that Uzzah suffer the consequences for his actions? God had commanded that the only persons that may touch the Ark of the Covenant were the Levites. He also warned that anyone else who touched it must die. It seems harsh that, concerned that the Ark might fall over and be damaged, that Uzzah should die because he reached out to steady it. Because God is soveriegn, He demands unquestioning obedience. He doesn't permit us the priviledge of the opportunity to question Him why His decrees must be so strictly obeyed . . . indeed He is angered if we seek to question Him (read Job and how God was upset that Job would question why he was so afflicted). Just like you, King David couldn't undestand this either. God is loving, kind and just; some can't reconcile that He could mete out such harsh consequences for disobedience. That which happened to Uzzah was written that we might understand God's character. Read Mark 16:16. when Jesus said that we who believe and are baptized will be saved, He wants us to remember Uzzah. The second part of Mark 16:16 points out the consequences if we don't obey God. I hope this helps . . . Dave. |
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Is there sacrifice for sin after Jesus |
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Heb 10:12
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Dave, Yes, I understand those things, however I also am aware that the day will come when every knee will bow and every tongue confess that Jesus is Lord, including that specific group of people, the Jews. In Ezekiel 43:7 says 7 He said to me, “Son of man, this is the place of My throne and the place of the soles of My feet, where I will dwell among the sons of Israel forever. And the house of Israel will not again defile My holy name, neither they nor their kings, by their harlotry and by the corpses of their kings when they die,
Verses like this indicate a permanence or final condition, and are a prophetic revelation not yet fullfilled. Back to you Dave. Thanks for the discussion. |
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opinion in NET Bible (cf. www.bible.org) |
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Gen 1:26
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I looked up any referance I could find about the word "Majesty", the closest I could come up with is the word "Exalted" in "Thompson's Chain Topics". try to look up the following:
Christ
His Exaltation, to Heavenly Places
Mark 16:19
Luke 22:69
Acts 2:36
Acts 5:31
Eph 1:20
Php 2:9
Heb 1:9
1Pe 3:22
Rev 5:12
SEE Christ; Exaltation of
SEE Christ; Head of the Church
SEE Christ; Honoured
God
Ps 21:13
Ps 47:9
Ps 57:11
Ps 99:5
Ps 108:5
Ps 118:28
Isa 12:4
Isa 25:1
Isa 33:5
SEE Honour
SEE Glorifying God
Israel
Exalted to a High Position when obedient. A type of the true church.
Deut 26:19
Deut 28:1
Deut 28:13
Deut 32:13
Deut 33:29
Isa 14:2
Isa 45:14
Isa 49:23
Isa 60:14
SEE God's; People
Under the Special protection of Jehovah.
SEE Promises, Divine; Of Protection
Saints
Of the Saints promised
Ps 91:14
Isa 33:16
Isa 58:14
Dan 12:3
Hab 3:19
Mat 19:28
Luke 19:17
1Co 6:2
Rev 3:21
Rev 5:10
Rev 11:12
SEE Reward
SEE Crowns; Spiritual
SEE Eternal; Glory
SEE Second Coming of Christ
(Thompson's Chain Topics, "Exalted")
I don't know if this will be of any help to you, but give it a try. :-) |
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holy kiss |
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1 Thess 5:26
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The holy kiss (Rom 16:16; 1 Cor 16:20; 2 Cor 13:12; 1 Thess 5:26) was adopted as a formal greeting among believers. The holy kiss showed love and charity. I would not like to think of the opposite. ..........
But, kisses were shown to be used in different ways in the Bible too, I'll list some of the negatives here: An act of worship toward heathen gods (1 Kings 19:18, 20; Job 31:27; Hos 13:2). To lure illicit love (Prov 7:13). Judas kissed Jesus to betray Him (Matt 26:48-49; Mark 14:44-45; Luke 22:47-48). ................... I hope this helps. |
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Could someone explain these descendances |
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Genesis
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I looked this up in my Bible dictionary, I don't think it will help you much, but give it a read. .................. LAMECH (Heb. lemekh, meaning undetermined). 1. A son of Methushael (Gen 4:18-24) and a descendant of Cain, who had two wives, Adah and Zillah. His sons founded the nomadic life and the musical arts, and invented metalcrafts and instruments of war. Lamech's song (4:23-24) expresses every feature of Hebrew poetry (alliteration, parallelism, poetic diction, etc.). 2. The son of Methuselah (5:28-31). This man, a descendant of Seth, became the father of Noah. His faith is attested by the name he gave his son, Noah (meaning "rest"), and by the hope of "comfort" (5:29) that he anticipated in his son's life. ................... I'm just a layperson without much Bible study (just Bible study at home and at church), but I'll keep trying to answer posts here - it help's me understand God's Word better too! |
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Was Pharaoh responsible? |
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Rom 9:17
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There is certainly room for disagreement on how much control God exercised over Pharaoh's heart and decisions at this time, but I think Romans 9:19-23 laves no question that Pharaoh was held guilty for the attitude that he had toward the Lord and his people. -- -- I am not of a Beza-Calvinist position that would suggest deliberate control over a person's final responsiveness to the Holy Spirit's conviction. Immediately before this exposition of God's control is the sequence of Romans 8:28-30, where God's foreknowledge of his people is followed by predestination to conform us to his image, then calling, justification and glorification in respective sequence. -- -- I assert that Pharaoh's heart was against God and his people. However, even a king who refused to worship God and love his people would be expected to exercise wisdom through temporary repentance. It is this temporary repentance that God prevented. His objective was not to have his people go into the desert, worship him, and return to slavery under a pagan king; his objective was to lead his people into a new life free from slavery and under willing submission to Himself as Lord and Savior. God controlled circumstances and even intervened in Pharaoh's heart and plans to accomplish this purpose and to bring himself glory. -- -- God does not choose to crush the wicked (whom he foreknows) before they are born but endures them despite his knowledge that their creation will result only in rebellion and destruction. However, he intervenes as he wishes in order to reveal Himself and to keep his plans for the righteous on course. -- -- I don't know whether the totality of what Pharaoh saw finally convicted him -- bringing him to repentance -- or whether he went the route of (most of) the Pharisees in blaspheming the Spirit in the face of unquestionable demonstration of God's power and authority in the world. His part in the Bible story ends at the Red Sea, but there is no indication in the history that I know that either Pharaoh or the Egypt of Pharaoh's time turned from their idols to God. Instead, those who turned to God apparently left with the Israelites as part of the "mixed multitude" (Ex.12:38). |
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Is Hades then Purgatory? |
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Bible general Archive 1
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I am not sure if this will answer your question, but it may help.
"Purgatory in Roman Catholic thought developed during the Middle Ages and hardened into dogma in reaction to the Protestant rejection of it. The Council of Trent (1545-63) declared that those who reject the doctrine of purgatory are 'anathema,' accursed....The doctrine can be seen as a distortion of biblical truth for several reasons: (1) Clear scriptural warrant is absent. The only possible supportive text is in the Apocrypha (II Macc. 12.43-45)." (Taken from the EVANGELICAL DICTIONARY OF THEOLOGY. Walter A. Elwell (ed.). Baker Books) |
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So then, what is Hades? |
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Bible general Archive 1
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"In the Septuagint, Hades is virtually synonymous with the Hebrew Sheol, the place-name of the abode of the dead. Thus, the word has in itself no doctrine of reward or punishment: see Ac. 2.27; Rev. 20.13. It appears, however, in Matt. 16.18 as the locus of opposition to the church, and this leads on to Matt. 11.23 (Lk. 10.15) and Lk. 16.23 where Hades is the place of punishment of the wicked dead." (Taken from - - EVANGELICAL DICTIONARY OF THEOLOGY. Walter A. Elwell (ed.), Baker Books).
It would seem that Hades and hell are synonymous. |
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What is an apostate? |
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2 Thess 2:3
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The apostasy refered to in this passage refers to the predicted great falling away of those who have professed to be christians.Hence, apostate. Heresy is the false teachings that leads someone to leave the truth and believe a lie.Warning:beware of the so called doctrines of TV evangelists. The basic message is usually true, but they twist much of the "meat" of the knowledge of God. Also get an amplified bible. It will answer many of your questions before you ask them. |
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Just as if I had never sinned? |
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1 Cor 6:11
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Though I concur with JVH0212 that Jesus has declared the believer righteous, I must add that this 'point of salvation' sinlessness is academic. We are not free from self, sin, temptation or the 'spirit of the age' until the Lord returns and restores us to a pre-Adam state through resurrection. You might say that we have won the (eternal) war, but the (present) battles rage on daily. Except Jesus, no one I am aware of is without sin. Even the patriarchs and the apostles had their failures. We are to pursue righeousness, and hope in it, not claim it falsely. If the church were truly made up of sinless people, there would be no divisions, no 'backsliders,' no problems at all. If we say, "Those troublemakers are not counted as righteous, they are hell-bound," there wouldn't be anybody in the church at all. I know that I won't 'cast the first stone.' This said, I stand by my first answer. For the present time, there is no sinlessness. Anyone who lays claim to present perfection is living in denial. |
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Predetermined or Free Will |
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Luke 8:13
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I have a couple questions with what you stated.
1: Where does it say that Jesus is omnipotent? Jesus says in Mat 24:36 "No one knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven nor the Son, but only the Father." If Jesus were omnipotent as you say, He would have known the day and hour.
2: God has predetermined that his plan of salvation will be carried out. This does not mean that he has predetermined who will and will not be saved. God wants everyone to be saved (If you need several versus to back this up, let me know). He provided the means for that to happen through the death and ressurection of Jesus. It is our choice whether to accept his Gift or not. From the very beginning, Adam and Eve made the choice to eat from the tree of knowledge even after God told them not to. In Josh 24:15, "But if serving the LORD seems undesirable to you, then choose for yourselves this day whom you will serve... In 1 Kings 18:21, the worshippers at Mt. Carmel were invited to choose that day whom they would serve, either Baal or God. In Isaiah 5:20, the people were certainly capable of choosing between good and evil. Why are we given the warning in Matt 7:15 ("Watch out for false prophets. They come to you in sheep's clothing, but inwardly they are ferocious wolves.") if we were predestined to be saved or not? Matt 7:21 says that only the people that choose to do the will of God will enter Heaven. Luke 13:3 tells us that unless we repent (our choice), we will perish. Matt 19:23-24 says that it is harder for a rich man to enter the Kingdom of God. If we were predetermined, then wouldn't it be just as easy (or hard)? John 3:16 ...whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. In John 7: 17-18, If anyone chooses to do God's will, he will find out whether my teaching comes from God or whether I speak on my own. He who speaks on his own does so to gain honor for himself... In Romans 1:17-32 is clear that man has chosen evil and is not predetermined to do so. Heb 9:27-28 tells us that we are to face judgment when we die. What would be the need of a judgment if we were predetermined. There are many more versus that talk about our choice which I will post if needed.
3: To renounce your salvation would be to turn your back on God, to no longer believe or accept his Gift. To no longer follow the teachings of Christ. Granted, you could always say that person wasn't really saved then. But then what would you say would have happened to that person if they died prior to that drastic change? And if you say that the person must not have been chosen by God to be saved and was only fooling themselves when they truely believed in Christ and thought they were saved then can you say for sure that anyone is saved? Did Jesus die for everyone or just for a select few? I can show you several versus that show that He died for all, can you show one that says otherwise? Then if Jesus did die for all, how could there be some that God predetermined not to be save?
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What is outer darkness |
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Matt 8:12
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Outer darkness is a place where the light of Christ doesn't shine. From the contexts it is a place of torment: the man who did not have proper clothing was unprepared even to give an answer as to why he was there, and the unfaithful servant did nothing with the gift given him by the Lord. These passages form a strong warning about our Christian life: we are to be faithful to God who called us, beiing ready to give witness to our calling, use what He has given us for the good of His kingdom.
I am more disturbed that the sons of the kingdom find themselves there. |
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Do you believe once save, always saved. |
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Luke 23:43
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No. If that were true, why would we be warned against temptations? |
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How do you then interpret the verses... |
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Luke 8:13
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I want to thank you for the dialogue we've been having. I do appreciate your views and I hope I can be of some help. Of course, the Calvinism vs. Arianism debate has been raging for centuries. It is said that every Christian believes in Election; but not every Christian defines Election in the same way. Because of the length of my answer, I will send this in 2 parts.
. . . WHAT DOES THE BIBLE TEACH ABOUT ELECTION?
Election is the act of God whereby in eternity past He chose those who will be saved. Election is unconditional, because it does not depend on anything outside of God, such as good works or foreseen faith (Romans 9:16). This doctrine is repeatedly taught in the Bible, and is also demanded by our knowledge of God. To begin with, let's look at the biblical evidence.
. . . The Bible says prior to salvation, all people are dead in sin-- spiritually dead (Ephesians 2:1-3). In this state of death, the sinner is utterly unable to respond to any spiritual stimulus and therefore unable to love God, obey Him, or please Him in any way. Scripture says the mind of every unbeliever "is hostile toward God; for it does not subject itself to the law of God, for it is not even able to do so; and those who are in the flesh cannot please God" (Romans 8:7-8, emphasis added). That describes a state of total hopelessness: spiritual death.
. . . The effect of all this is that no sinner can ever make the first move in the salvation process. This is what Jesus meant in John 6:44, when He said, "No one can come to Me, unless the Father who sent Me draws him."
. . . This is also why the Bible repeatedly stresses that salvation is wholly God's work. In Acts 13:48 we read, "And when the Gentiles heard this, they began rejoicing and glorifying the word of the Lord; and as many as had been appointed to eternal life believed."
. . . Acts 16 tells us that Lydia was saved when, " . . . the Lord opened her heart to respond to the things spoken by Paul."
. . . Romans 8:29-30 states, "For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the first-born among many brethren; and whom He predestined, these He also called; and whom He called, these He also justified; and whom He justified, these He also glorified."
. . . Ephesians 1:4-5,11 reads, "Just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before Him. In love He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the kind intention of His will . . . also we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to His purpose who works all things after the counsel of His will."
. . . Ephesians 2:8 suggests that even our faith is a gift from God.
In 2 Thessalonians 2:13, the apostle Paul tells his readers, "God has chosen you from the beginning for salvation."
. . . Second Timothy 1:9 informs us that God "has saved us, and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace which was granted us in Christ Jesus from all eternity."
. . . (article by John MacArthur at www.gty.org - listed in Issues and Answers archives) To be continued in next message.
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Just as if I had never sinned? |
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1 Cor 6:11
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Dear brother or sister JVH0212, I well understand the point of your answer. However, I am not sure if that was the question. I have asked load to clarify if he or she was asking about the future or the present. I am aware that Balaam could not curse Israel because they were righteous in God's sight. However, God Himself spoke through the prophets of Israel's constant sin and faithlessness. Perhaps if we call sin sin, we can be more effective in battling against it. As one saved by grace through faith, I hope fervently for His coming to complete salvation and resurrection. In the meantime, I will continue to run the race, embracing the ongoing grace to repent and the everyday cleansing power of the Holy Spirit. |
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Just as if I had never sinned? |
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1 Cor 6:11
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Dear JVH0212, No misunderstanding. I was also referring to righteousness meaning no sin. The OT is our teacher, and Balaam was told by God that Israel was blameless, even though the other prophets proclaimed Israel's guilt. We of the NT can claim righteousness as an eternal reward of our faith, but in practice we have not yet achieved it. Please look at the note that I posted to the original questioner, 'load.' |
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Just as if I had never sinned? |
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1 Cor 6:11
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I have to strongly disagree with your statement: "We of the NT can claim righteousness as an eternal reward of our faith..." . . . Righteousness is imputed to us when we are saved. And we are neither saved nor made righteous "as a reward of our faith." We are saved BY grace THROUGH faith. Ephesians 2:8-9 God's Word Translation: "God saved you through faith as an act of kindness. You had nothing to do with it. Being saved is a gift from God. It's not the result of anything you've done, so no one can brag about it." . . . We are saved by grace alone through faith alone in Christ alone. Our faith does not save us or give us righteousness in the eyes of God. Only the grace provided by the shed blood of Jesus Christ can save us. See Rom 3:28 . . . Eph 2:9 Living Bible "Salvation is not a reward for the good we have done." Moreover, salvation is not a reward for ANYTHING we have done. . . . The only righteousness that we have is the righteousness of Christ Himself, which is IMPUTED (put into) us. Rom 4: 1-8 NASB What then shall we say that Abraham, our forefather according to the flesh, has found? 2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? "ABRAHAM BELIEVED GOD, AND IT WAS CREDITED TO HIM AS RIGHTEOUSNESS." 4 Now to the one who works, his wage is not credited as a favor, but as what is due. 5 But to the one who does not work, but believes in Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is credited as righteousness, 6 just as David also speaks of the blessing on the man to whom God credits righteousness apart from works: 7 "BLESSED ARE THOSE WHOSE LAWLESS DEEDS HAVE BEEN FORGIVEN, AND WHOSE SINS HAVE BEEN COVERED. 8 "BLESSED IS THE MAN WHOSE SIN THE LORD WILL NOT TAKE INTO ACCOUNT."
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Just as if I had never sinned? |
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1 Cor 6:11
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Dear JVH0212, My, I can feel the heat! I do not mean in any way that I have earned my reward. By reward I do not mean payment. I understand imputation. Your 8 points are correct. However, I note that you do not address the issue of real sin in the church today. My friend, I really do understand that God sees us as righteous, just as Balaam blessed Israel because he was shown Israel as God sees them in the eternal sense. But today, now, we must continually pursue that righteousness, and as James so aptly spoke, "You see that faith was working with his works, and as a result of the works, faith was perfected;" JAM 2:22.
Frankly, I find this to be a matter of semantics. I think that 'load' was asking if we are suddenly perfect after we accept Jesus, that we are no longer affected by sin. My answer to him (or her) was that we are still affected and often swayed by sin even after salvation. Is it not true that even the 'converted' can sin? Peace unto you, in Jesus' name.
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That's an interesting belief. |
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Luke 23:43
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Let me say it this way. God cannot look at sin because he knows no sin. When a Christian is tempted and does sin he must repent to have that fellowship again. If a Christian turns his back against God and does not repent, I believe it is possible for him to suffer sin unto death, but I don't think it warrants losing his salvation. We would all be walking around wondering if we were really saved.
Scripture references on unconfessed sins are:
1 Cor. 5:1-5
1 Cor. 11:27-30
Act 5:1-10
Psa 118:17-18
No response is needed. I'm just glad we have a commom goal and that is serving our Lord Jesus Christ and we'll let God straighten us out one day on the side issues. |
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Sabbath laws....do? or don't? |
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Col 2:16
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Are the Sabbath laws binding on Christians today?
. . . We believe the Old Testament regulations governing Sabbath observances are ceremonial, not moral, aspects of the law. As such, they are no longer in force, but have passed away along with the sacrificial system, the Levitical priesthood, and all other aspects of Moses' law that prefigured Christ. . . . Here are the reasons we hold this view.
. . . In Colossians 2:16-17, Paul explicitly refers to the Sabbath as a shadow of Christ, which is no longer binding since the substance (Christ) has come. It is quite clear in those verses that the weekly Sabbath is in view. The phrase "a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath day" refers to the annual, monthly, and weekly holy days of the Jewish calendar (cf. 1 Chronicles 23:31; 2 Chronicles 2:4; 31:3; Ezekiel 45:17; Hosea 2:11). If Paul were referring to special ceremonial dates of rest in that passage, why would he have used the word "Sabbath?" He had already mentioned the ceremonial dates when he spoke of festivals and new moons.
. . . The Sabbath was the sign to Israel of the Mosaic Covenant (Exodus 31:16-17; Ezekiel 20:12; Nehemiah 9:14). Since we are now under the New Covenant (Hebrews 8), we are no longer required to observe the sign of the Mosaic Covenant.
. . . The New Testament never commands Christians to observe the Sabbath.
. . . In our only glimpse of an early church worship service in the New Testament, the church met on the first day of the week (Acts 20:7).
. . . Nowhere in the Old Testament are the Gentile nations commanded to observe the Sabbath or condemned for failing to do so. That is certainly strange if Sabbath observance were meant to be an eternal moral principle.
. . . There is no evidence in the Bible of anyone keeping the Sabbath before the time of Moses, nor are there any commands in the Bible to keep the Sabbath before the giving of the law at Mt. Sinai.
. . . When the Apostles met at the Jerusalem council (Acts 15), they did not impose Sabbath keeping on the Gentile believers.
. . . The apostle Paul warned the Gentiles about many different sins in his epistles, but breaking the Sabbath was never one of them.
. . . In Galatians 4:10-11, Paul rebukes the Galatians for thinking God expected them to observe special days (including the Sabbath).
. . . In Romans 14:5, Paul forbids those who observe the Sabbath (these were no doubt Jewish believers) to condemn those who do not (Gentile believers).
. . . The early church fathers, from Ignatius to Augustine, taught that the Old Testament Sabbath had been abolished and that the first day of the week (Sunday) was the day when Christians should meet for worship (contrary to the claim of many seventh-day sabbatarians who claim that Sunday worship was not instituted until the fourth century).
. . . Sunday has not replaced Saturday as the Sabbath. Rather the Lord's Day is a time when believers gather to commemorate His resurrection, which occurred on the first day of the week. Every day to the believer is one of Sabbath rest, since we have ceased from our spiritual labor and are resting in the salvation of the Lord (Hebrews 4:9-11).
. . . So while we still follow the pattern of designating one day of the week a day for the Lord's people to gather in worship, we do not refer to this as "the Sabbath."
. . . (www.gty.org Click on Issues and Answers. Click on Previous Topics) |
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That's an interesting belief. |
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Luke 23:43
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I completely and totaly agree that we are saved by Grace alone and not by works.
What I don't agree with though is once saved always saved.
2 John 1: 8-9 Watch out that you do not lose what you have worked for, but that you may be rewarded fully. Anyone who runs ahead and does not continue in the teaching of Christ does not have God; whoever continues in the teaching has both the Father and the Son.
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Can one who commits suicide be saved? |
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Ex 20:13
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God does not forgive suicide because the person who committed the sin can not ask for forgiveness afterwards. God can forgive you for commiting a murder to another person if you live to repent, but if there is no life left in your body to repent you are not forgiven. The bible says you have not because you ask not. If you can't ask you can't get it. |
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Predetermined or Free Will |
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Luke 8:13
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Sorry, I thought I answered your questions. Please let me know what questions I haven't answered. By the way, I have posted may questions (and verses) asking how you would interpret them and have not received any answers. I do see that you are good at turning things around to fit what you want.
Spiritually dead does not mean that a person cannot choose God. It simply means that that person is currently in a state that is not open to God. Take for example a "morally bankrupt" person or a person without morals. That doesn't mean that the person cannot choose to change his behavior to be a better person. The same goes for the Spiritally dead person. If that person hears about what Jesus can offer, they could choose to listen and believe.
Yes, I'm fully aware of the meanings of "predestined" and "omniscience". I also understand that you are misapplying the term predestined to individuals being predestined rather than the correct interpretation that God's plan was predestined. The term "Elect" you mentioned somewhere is just another way of saying the believers. (today, we call them the "born-again" for example.)
Also, I seriously looked into the Calvinistic belief and have talked with a "Calvinistic elder" at my church to try and see their views. Instead of just relying on what they said though, I researched the topic myself using the bible and the internet looking at it from various viewpoints (including that of the JW's). I'm sorry to say that I could not find a valid reason for interpreting the bible using the "Calvinistic Belief" or the JW's.
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Is repentance required? |
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Ex 20:13
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Repentance is admitting that you have sinned against God. This is part of salvation. Confession unto the Father that you have sinned is what you do after you become a Christian. When the Holy spirit makes you aware of something you did then you confess and ask for forgiveness. Let me know if that helps you at all. |
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Is repentance required? |
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Ex 20:13
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To repent is to change one's mind; to change the way you think and act. Don't take my word for it -- look it up in any Bible dictionary or English dictionary. It involves more than a feeling of remorse. It also involves more than just an admission of guilt. A person could admit that he sinned without ever changing the way he thinks and acts -- without ever turning from the sin and toward Christ. |
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Is repentance required? |
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Ex 20:13
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No, you need to do more than admit your sin. You need to repent of it. To repent is to change one's mind; to change the way you think and act. Don't take my word for it -- look it up in any Bible dictionary or English dictionary. It involves more than a feeling of remorse. It also involves more than just an admission of guilt. A person could admit that he sinned without ever changing the way he thinks and acts -- without ever turning from the sin and toward Christ.
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Are christians exempt from judgement? |
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2 Cor 5:10
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The judgement seat of Christ is indeed for believers. The important thing to remember is that it has nothing to do with salvation, but with reward. Everything that we have done in our lives, both good and bad, will be judged before Christ, and there will be a response for the good things, and a response for the bad things. All the bad things will be burned(1 Cor. 3:15). For the good things, we will receive a reward(v14). It is best exemplified by the silversmith when he takes the ore and heats it up until all the bad, worthless rock and minerals fall to the bottom, and the pure silver rises to the top. The more we grow in this life, and the more fruit good fruit we bear, the more reward will be given to us, which we will then cast at the Father's feet for His honor and glory. |
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How best to translate Ps. 45:6? |
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Psalm
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I was wondering if Ps. 45:6 could be translated any other way than "Thy throne O God, is forever and ever..." This is directly quoted in Hebrews chapter 1. Some groups, notably Jehovah's Witnesses, claim that this should be translated in Hebrews as "God is thy throne forever and ever..." This is an alternate reading in some Bibles, but it makes no sense to me. But if the verse in the Psalms can ONLY be translated this one way, then that would invalidate the alternate translation. I know that these verses are vocative tenses, with no verb, which can make it a little dicey sometimes translating. And I'm aware that both "throne" and "God" in Hebrews end in the same nominative ending, supposedly making them interchangeable. But again, "God is thy throne," makes no sense. A throne is the place from which one rules, and God isn't a place.
Thanks for any help anyone can give me! Bonnie |
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