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SOUL AND SPIRIT |
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Not Specified
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WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE SOUL AND THE SPIRIT? DO ANIMALS HAVE A SOUL AND A SPIRIT? |
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Why did God have no regard for Cain? |
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Heb 11:4
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Maybe if Cain had regard for God (a valid abiding faith in and love for God), he would have been concerned with pleasing God after his offering was rejected and not focused on murdering his brother. I think Cain must have been a spiritual wasteland before he ever presented his offering to God. |
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Who is God referring to? |
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Gen 1:26
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God is referring to the
Trinity of the Godhead:
1. God the Father
2. God the Son
3. God the Holy Spirit |
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Wisdom personified as a woman |
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Prov 3:16
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Perhaps Solomon personified wisdom as a woman because the female gives physical birth to the child...Those who seek and follow Wisdom should be 'reborn' or renewed to a new level of spiritual and emotional maturity. |
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verse referring to grace ,stone |
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Zech 4:7
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My thoughts...The "mountain" is probably an impossible task that can only be accomplished by God's Spirit.
The "top stone" is the final touch to the rebuilt temple when it is completed.
"Grace, grace to it" is the enabling of Zerubbabel by God's Spirit as an expression of His grace. Hope this helps. |
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SOUL AND SPIRIT |
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James 2:26
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WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE SOUL AND THE SPIRIT? DO ANIMALS HAVE A SOUL AND A SPIRIT? |
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SOUL AND SPIRIT |
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James 2:26
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In 1 Thessalonians 5:23 God's word tells us that man has a body a soul and a spirit. The spirit is the part of us that makes the difference between us and animals. It enables us to have a relationship with God, who is spirit. (John 4:24) This verse further states He must be worshiped in spirit and in truth. The spirit is what enables us to reason and know. It is the intellectual part. It is this part that makes us responsible for responding to God's provision of salvation in Jesus.
The soul is what makes the difference physical life and death. The soul is the seat of our emotions, feelings and wants or desires.
Humans have 3 parts: body, soul and spirit.
Angels are spirits and animals have body and soul only.
My understanding of this subject has been deepened by WHAT THE BIBLE TEACHES which is an Emmaus Bible commentary Published by Emmaus Bible College is Dubuque, Iowa. |
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HOW COULD JESUS BE A DESCENDANT OF DAVID |
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Bible general Archive 1
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HOW COULD JESUS BE A DESCENDANT OF DAVID IF HE WAS CONCIEVED BY THE HOLY SPIRIT? HE DID NOT HAVE AN EARTHLY FATHER. |
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Who wrote the Old Testament? |
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OT general
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Holy men of old, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. |
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What is Pentecost and its significance? |
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Acts 2:1
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Acts 1:8 says,"But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Spirit is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto Me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth."
Jesus had told them not to depart from Jerusalem, but to wait for the promise of the Father,which ye have heard of me.
For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days heance. Acts 1:4-5
Pentecost was this baptism of the Holy Spirit on the ones that it had been promised.
It's significance was to spread the Gospel to everyone that was in Jerusalem on that day, for they all heard in their own language.
This caused the Gospel of Jesus Christ to be spread abroad very quickly. |
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One Place, Seeking The Fatther's Heart |
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Acts 2:1
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The day of Pentecost was fully come not only because of the pre-existing chronological plan of God, but because the disciples were all in one place and one accord. They were in Jerusalem of course, but they were really in the Spirit and they were in one accord because they were seeking the heart of Father God. (See the verses leading up to ch. 2) This was the most fragile component of the birth of the church A reference verse that points to the imperative of accord can be found in Zeph. 3:9. |
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What is Pentecost and its significance? |
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Acts 2:1
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Pentecost is the Promise of a Universal Outpouring of the Holy Spirit upon believers who ask for Him (See Luke 11:11, 12, 13) with manifestations Peter emphasizes in his sermon, a promise the Father made centuries earlier by the Prophet Joel (Joel 2) as Peter shows further in Chap. 2. It is the seal of the promise Jesus made in John 14 when He said he would not leave us as orphans, but would send us another comforter, the Holy Spirit.
By the Holy Spirit Jesus constantly remains Emmanuel, God among us. The day iof Pentecost is recorded in history as the birthday of the church which is the body of Christ on earth. |
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opinion in NET Bible (cf. www.bible.org) |
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Gen 1:26
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I looked up any referance I could find about the word "Majesty", the closest I could come up with is the word "Exalted" in "Thompson's Chain Topics". try to look up the following:
Christ
His Exaltation, to Heavenly Places
Mark 16:19
Luke 22:69
Acts 2:36
Acts 5:31
Eph 1:20
Php 2:9
Heb 1:9
1Pe 3:22
Rev 5:12
SEE Christ; Exaltation of
SEE Christ; Head of the Church
SEE Christ; Honoured
God
Ps 21:13
Ps 47:9
Ps 57:11
Ps 99:5
Ps 108:5
Ps 118:28
Isa 12:4
Isa 25:1
Isa 33:5
SEE Honour
SEE Glorifying God
Israel
Exalted to a High Position when obedient. A type of the true church.
Deut 26:19
Deut 28:1
Deut 28:13
Deut 32:13
Deut 33:29
Isa 14:2
Isa 45:14
Isa 49:23
Isa 60:14
SEE God's; People
Under the Special protection of Jehovah.
SEE Promises, Divine; Of Protection
Saints
Of the Saints promised
Ps 91:14
Isa 33:16
Isa 58:14
Dan 12:3
Hab 3:19
Mat 19:28
Luke 19:17
1Co 6:2
Rev 3:21
Rev 5:10
Rev 11:12
SEE Reward
SEE Crowns; Spiritual
SEE Eternal; Glory
SEE Second Coming of Christ
(Thompson's Chain Topics, "Exalted")
I don't know if this will be of any help to you, but give it a try. :-) |
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Is the abyss hell? |
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Luke 8:31
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My Bible dictionary states:
ABYSS (Gr. abyssos). In the NT it refers to the world of the dead (Rom 10:7) or the nether world, the prison of disobedient spirits (Luke 8:31; Rev 9:1-2, 11; 11:7; 17:8; 20:1-3). In classical Greek it meant the primeval deep; in later Judaism it included the interior depths of the earth and the prison of evil spirits.
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Was Pharaoh responsible? |
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Rom 9:17
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There is certainly room for disagreement on how much control God exercised over Pharaoh's heart and decisions at this time, but I think Romans 9:19-23 laves no question that Pharaoh was held guilty for the attitude that he had toward the Lord and his people. -- -- I am not of a Beza-Calvinist position that would suggest deliberate control over a person's final responsiveness to the Holy Spirit's conviction. Immediately before this exposition of God's control is the sequence of Romans 8:28-30, where God's foreknowledge of his people is followed by predestination to conform us to his image, then calling, justification and glorification in respective sequence. -- -- I assert that Pharaoh's heart was against God and his people. However, even a king who refused to worship God and love his people would be expected to exercise wisdom through temporary repentance. It is this temporary repentance that God prevented. His objective was not to have his people go into the desert, worship him, and return to slavery under a pagan king; his objective was to lead his people into a new life free from slavery and under willing submission to Himself as Lord and Savior. God controlled circumstances and even intervened in Pharaoh's heart and plans to accomplish this purpose and to bring himself glory. -- -- God does not choose to crush the wicked (whom he foreknows) before they are born but endures them despite his knowledge that their creation will result only in rebellion and destruction. However, he intervenes as he wishes in order to reveal Himself and to keep his plans for the righteous on course. -- -- I don't know whether the totality of what Pharaoh saw finally convicted him -- bringing him to repentance -- or whether he went the route of (most of) the Pharisees in blaspheming the Spirit in the face of unquestionable demonstration of God's power and authority in the world. His part in the Bible story ends at the Red Sea, but there is no indication in the history that I know that either Pharaoh or the Egypt of Pharaoh's time turned from their idols to God. Instead, those who turned to God apparently left with the Israelites as part of the "mixed multitude" (Ex.12:38). |
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Is this the first time John saw Jesus? |
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John 1:29
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There's no Biblical account of this being the first time that John and Jesus met, but they were cousins (both of their mothers were sisters) and I think thay might have grown up with each other. Remember that John leaped in his mother's womb (Luke 1:41) when Mary met Elizabeth (Mary's sister), so being filled with the Holy Spirit John knew that the baby in Mary's womb was the Christ. |
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allow the dead to bury their own dead |
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Matt 8:22
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"Let the spiritually dead bury the physically dead. The time of Jesus' ministry was short and demanded full attention and commitment. This statement stresses the radical demands of Jesus' discipleship, since Jews placed great importance on the duty of children to bury their parents." (Zondervan NASB Study Bible, p. 1379) |
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Take Your Holy Spirit from me? |
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Ps 51:11
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A dear friend once admonished me to be careful when leading people (in worship) with the popular worship song "Create in me a clean heart". Can someone give me a good explanation that I might use regarding the idea (in this context) of God "taking His Spirit away"? |
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Take Your Holy Spirit from me? |
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Ps 51:11
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"No believer of the present Church Age need ever pray, 'Take not thy Holy Spirit from me'; for Christ promised His own that the Spirit would 'abide with you forever' (Jn. 14:16; compare Eph. 4:30). But it is always proper for the Christian to pray that he may be conformed to the conditions essential to the full ministry of the Spirit." (note at Ps. 51:11, New Scofield Reference Bible, 1967, Oxford University Press) "In the O.T. economy, the Holy Spirit was particularly related to service, rather than salvation...Here David is asking God not to take away his service as the anointed king of Israel..." (p. 846, The Ryrie Study Bible, 1976, 1978, Moody Press) |
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Did God want us to have borders? |
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OT general
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In the Old Testament, under the Law, the Jews were to be separate from all other nations. But in the present Church Age, there is no distinction in God's eyes, no spiritual inequality before God. Galatians 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
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Can anyone give me more reasons? |
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Bible general Archive 1
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More Reasons .. ok
1.Not one of the apocryphal books is written in the Hebrew language, which was alone used by the inspired historians and poets of the Old Testament. All Apocryphal books are in Greek, except one which is only in Latin.
2.None of the apocryphal writers laid claim to inspiration.
3.The apocryphal books were never acknowledged as sacred scriptures by the Jews, custodians of the Hebrew scriptures (the apocrypha was written prior to the New Testament). In fact, the Jewish people rejected and destroyed the apocrypha after the overthow of Jerusalem in 70 A.D.
4.The apocryphal books were not permitted among the sacred books during the first four centuries of the real Christian church.
5.The Apocrypha contains statements which not only contradict
the "canonical" scriptures but themselves. For example, in the two Books of Maccabees, Antiochus Epiphanes is made to die three different deaths in three different places.
6.The Apocrypha includes doctrines in variance with the Bible, such as prayers for the dead and sinless perfection. The following verses are taken from the Apocrypha translation by Ronald Knox dated 1954:
Basis for the doctrine of purgatory:
(2Maccabees 12:43-45), 2.000 pieces of silver were sent to Jerusalem for a sin-offering...Whereupon he made reconciliation for the dead, that they might be delivered from sin.
Salvation by works:
(Ecclesiasticus 3:30), Water will quench a flaming fire, and alms maketh atonement for sin.
(Tobit 12:8-9, 17), It is better to give alms than to lay up gold; for alms doth deliver from death, and shall purge away all sin.
Magic:
(Tobit 6:5-8), If the Devil, or an evil spirit troubles anyone, they can be driven away by making a smoke of the heart, liver, and gall of a fish...and the Devil will smell it, and flee away, and never come again anymore.
Mary was born sinless (immaculate conception):
(Wisdom 8:19-20), And I was a witty child and had received a good soul. And whereas I was more good, I came to a body undefiled.
It teaches immoral practices, such as lying, suicide, assasination and magical incantation.
No apocryphal book is referred to in the New Testament whereas the Old Testament is referred to hundreds of times.
Because of these and other reasons, the apocryphal books are only valuable as ancient documents illustrative of the manners, language, opinions and history of the East.
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Is this |
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Rom 6:3
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No, you do not need to be "water" baptized to be saved. The word translated "baptized" (in most texts) literally translates as "immersed" which is to "completely dip, plunge under".
The 1 Peter 3:21 here equates “baptism now saves you” to “but an appeal to God for a good conscience - through the resurrection of Jesus Christ.”. This word appeal is the action word in the phrase and has nothing to do with “water baptism (immersion)”. Baptism here is the same as the Romans 6 comments below.
Some Jews of that day "water baptized (immersed)" themselves as an act of spiritual cleansing, purification. This was a normal thing for a religious person to do. Sometimes this was done more than once a day. Note that the Ethiopian is likely Jewish: for he worships at Jerusalem. Nothing is said in the Acts passage that “water baptism” is required for salvation. This was not the message Philip preached. The Ethiopian requests to be baptized. Baptism was something a repentant person did, so this is completely normal for the day.
As for Romans chapter 6: This speaks about believers being "buried with Him through baptism into death". One needs to read the context of this passage to understand what Paul meant by this. I think it is clear that believers are alive in Christ through His death and through His death we are saved. The baptism or immersion here is a reference to being immersed in His death, not a water baptism. Reason being that if we are in Him, we will also be raised up from the dead just as He was. Paul is using a logical argument in this chapter speaking about the believer and sin. Notice how Paul connects the points of his argument throughout the whole chapter, too.
Also note that, in the gospels, John baptized with (in) water but Jesus baptized with the Spirit. See: Matt. 3:11-12; John 1:32-34; Luke 3:16.
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Was Pharaoh responsible? |
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Rom 9:17
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Thanks, Ric, for pointing out my unfortunate use of vocabulary, which I feel I need to correct. To be honest, I don't like the wording, "temporary repentance" -- even though it was my own choice of words at the time. I think it could tend to mean something I didn't intend. It's not completely off but needs to be understood more as a logical or pragmatic repentance rather than an actual deep change. The action is temporary; the deep motivation and attitude is simply unchanged. This may be parallel (but not identical to) an interpretation of the seed falling by the road in the parable of the sower, where the surface response to the good news was great but short-lived because the deeper ground of the true heart was not fertile to actually receive the conviction of the Spirit; this gave a temporary but false impression of saving faith. |
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HOW COULD JESUS BE A DESCENDANT OF DAVID |
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Bible general Archive 1
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Jesus, the Messiah, Deliverer, Son of God and King of Kings, was concieved by the Holy Spirit and born of a virgin. The fullness of the Godhead dwelt bodily in Jesus while he was in every way a human being. Jesus was not fathered by any man, since no man had been with Mary (Luke 1:34). And Joseph, Mary's betrothed husband, at first struggled to accept this fact but later accepted it (Matthew 1:19-25). But Jesus had to be 'brought up' or 'brought forth' from the line of David; he Himself had to find his earthly beginnings and achieve his earthly ministry while being of the Kingly heritage of David. God's promise to David is ultimately fulfilled by Jesus as David's 'descendant' of whom it was promised in 2 Samuel 7:16, and in the line of Judah in Genesis 49:10: both fulfilled by the Lord Jesus Christ! And Luke 3:23-38 shows the 'direct line' genealogy from Mary, the vessel in which God used to deliver His only Son into this world, all the way down to David, and it even goes from David to Adam! And if you look in Matthew 1:1-17, you can see how Joseph, who was the step-father of Jesus, was also in the Kingly heritage, being a descendant of King David. So Jesus was in fact a descendant of David as well as being part of the royal heritage as promised by God. Now you ask: "What do you think about the Christ, whose son is He?" (Matthew 22:41-46) They said to Him, "The son of David." Jesus said to them, "Then how does David in the Spirit call him 'Lord', saying, "THE LORD SAID TO MY LORD, 'SIT AT MY RIGHT HAND, UNTIL I PUT YOUR ENEMIES BENEATH YOUR FEET' '? If David then calls him 'Lord', how is He his son?" Very good question! Here is the answer: Jesus was a descendant of David while he dwelt upon this earth, but He has always been and has always existed as God. He was never created by God but has always existed as part of the Godhead with His Father and the Holy Spirit. In this passage (Matthew 22:41-46), David called upon the Lord during his life, even the Lord Jesus! Now he says, 'THE LORD SAID TO MY LORD'.. This is God the Father in heaven saying to God the Son, "SIT AT MY RIGHT HAND UNTIL I PUT YOUR ENEMIES BENEATH YOUR FEET." So God the Son ascended into heaven to assume His Lordship at God the Father's right hand until the time when Jesus will return to earth in the Second Coming of Christ. So this is how the Lord Jesus is David's Lord (whom David called upon) and also David's son, or descendant, at the same time. I hope that this explanation helps. I use the New American Standard Bible ('95), which is my very favorite translation! |
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Jesus' name baptism? |
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Acts 2:38
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Apparently the apostles baptized in the name of Jesus. Was this a revelation from the Holy Spirit after Jesus said in Matthew 28:19 to baptize in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit? |
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Still not clear...would appreciate more |
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1 Samuel
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I understand that his faith had to be cold...but what do you supposed caused that to happen. I understand the rites and rituals of such a man, and am curious if there is another text that might further explain it. I also know that rites and rituals do not attest to ones spiritual health, but find it hard to understand how this man could have grown away from the fear of the Lord to allow this to happen. |
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Why did Jesus have to beborn of a virgin |
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Bible general Archive 1
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This is an excellent though-provoking question. I would advocate that God's plan as to how the baby would be born came prior to the prophecy -- not the other way around. Of course, the Son of God would need to have God as a parent in order to be God (maintain his God-hood as a person) genetically. However, I don't see that a faithful and consistent wife or a widow would contribute any more "sinful" of a nature than a virgin. (In fact, this concept in an extreme form could lead to wives witholding relations in a way that could hinder the marriage relationship.) There is a connection of virginity with ceremonial purity, however, that could be significant. In addition, female virginity is typically verifiable by physical means for the majority of women. In this way, Mary's virginity right up to the point of birth would most likely have been verifiable by Joseph, a midwife or anyone else who was allowed to investigate fully; her virginity would act as a testimony, therefore, that the "male seed" was placed there by the Holy Spirit rather than through sexual intercourse. With a non-virgin, there would always be more room for question and accusation. |
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It must have some merit...no? |
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1 Cor 6:11
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Dear load, If the soul feels better, then yes. But the answer to the spirit is still no. Can you forget all previous sin? Just as if I had never been born of flesh?Memory keeps us humble. |
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Jesus' name baptism? |
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Acts 2:38
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'According to Jesus [in Matt 28:19], baptism is to be administered "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit" . . . Evangelicals accept this verse as Jesus' words and agree that the Trinitarian formula was spoken by the Son of God himself.' (NRSV Harper Study Bible, note at Matt 28:19) Acts 2:38 is 'not a contradiction to the fuller formula given in Matt 28:19. In Acts the abbreviated form emphasizes the distinctive quality of this baptism, for Jesus is now included in a way that He was not in John's baptism . . . ' (Zondervan NASB Study Bible, p. 1576) |
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