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When did the dinosaurs exist? |
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Job 40:15
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The Bible doesn't date the Book of Job. It is possible that this happened before the flood. I really don't know. I know that skeletons of animals that are called dinosaurs have been dug up all over the world, so they evidently did exist at some time on the earth. Noah took 7 pairs of all the clean animals into the ark with him so dinosaurs would have escaped the flood also. It is possible that when the large land mass broke up 100 years after the flood that the dinosaurs perished. |
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Was Noah's Ark ever found? |
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OT general
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Was Noah's Ark ever found? |
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Explanations of difficult verses |
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NT general
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Difficult Verses on Baptism
Mark 16:16
Some say that baptism is a requirement for salvation. This doctrine flies in the face of salvation by grace through faith alone. What then does it mean? The two possible answers are:
It is not speaking of water baptism at all, but of the baptism of the Holy Spirit. This occurs at the time of our conversion, the time of our belief, and hence could be linked directly with belief in the verse.
The other possibility is that since baptism is so closely linked to the our belief in Christ that it is listed here as part of that process. This verse does not say that we must be baptized to be saved, but that when we are saved, we should be baptized. If it were saying that both belief AND baptism are requirements for salvation, it would have to list "not believe OR not been baptized" as the reason for condemnation. In fact, the grammatical construct of this sentence in Greek does not require that both parts on the left be true for the result on the right to be true. While this is not definitive proof that only belief is required to be saved, it leaves open that possibility. We can prove the interpretation with the rest of Scripture.
Luke 7:29-30
These two verses seem to indicate that someone's baptism has some effect on their ability to discern certain things. It is more likely that the condition of their heart and the presence of the Holy Spirit which led them to be baptized or not be baptized is the driving force in their discernment.
Acts 2:38
Some say that since receiving of the Holy Spirit occurs when we are save, then since baptism is required to receive the Holy Spirit, it is required to be saved.
This verse falls into the same Greek construct of not requiring both parts on the left to be true for the right of the equation to be true, again leaving open the possibility of repentance being the only requirement. Repentance (turning away from our sin), in the name of Jesus can only happen to those who receive Him as their Savior. It is when we receive Jesus, that our sins are forgiven. This verse shows once again how closely the time of a new Christian's baptism should be to the time they are saved.
Acts 8:14-17
Here we have an occurrence where people have been saved (Samaria had received the word of God), and yet had not received the Holy Spirit. Why?
The Holy Spirit typically comes to live inside of someone at the moment they are saved. But in this case, in order that God's acceptance of the Samaritans would be fully evident, the gift of the Spirit was delayed. God needed to show that His grace was available to ALL MEN. He needed to show it in a mighty way to the Jews. What better way than to have them actually see the Holy Spirit being received by the Samaritans, people whom the Jews loathed.
1 Corinthians 15:29
Some attempt to be baptized for someone who has already died, so that they may have eternal life and be saved. Such doctrine is inconsistent with the rest of Scripture. Baptism, which comes after we receive Jesus as our Savior and Lord, looks forward to our eternity in heaven. If none of this is true (heaven, eternal life, etc.), then our belief and baptism would be foolish. Praise be to God, that it ALL IS TRUE! Some early Christians may have dedicated their baptisms to those who had led them to Jesus who may have died or been killed.
1 Peter 3:21
Some find support for the idea that baptism is a requirement for salvation, in fact is the major requirement. This is simply not true. Peter specifically indicates that it is not water baptism he is speaking of (-- not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience--), but Spirit baptism. Water baptism does not save us, but symbolizes that we are saved. The waters of the flood brought death to those who did not believe, but life to Noah and his family. Yet in it all, it was God who provided the way of escape in the Ark, In the same way, God provides a way of escape for us in the cross of Jesus. The waters of baptism are for us a symbol of God's provision through the cross, just as the waters of the flood symbolize his provision for Noah's family through the ark.
Acts 16:31-34
Some claim that we may believe in Christ for the purpose of saving our infant children and that the Bible supports infant baptism for salvation of those infants.
This verse does not indicate that the belief of the jailhouse guard would save his household, but that salvation through belief was available to everyone in his household. Each of them must believe on their own as seen in verse 34 "with his whole household", as opposed to" for his whole household". Also, there is no indication here that this man had younger children who were too young to make their own profession of faith, hence there is no support for either believing or being baptized for the purpose of saving our infant children. |
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did the cannaanites become black |
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Gen 4:15
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The verse you referenced is incorrect. If you are referring to the mark put on Cain, son of Adam, then this has nothing to do with the Canaanites. The bible does not specify what the mark was. It could have been a mark on the forehead, on the hand, it could have been a overall skin color change (black, white, purple, green or whatever). No one can seriously say for sure. I would highly doubt though that the black race (or, more correctly, group - after all we are all of the human race) of people were cursed.
If you are talking about Gen 9:25 when Noah cursed Canaan (his grandson) which later his descendents became the canaanites, the Bible does not mention what the curse was other than he will be slaves to his brothers. If you are somehow interpreting that because they were made slaves, they are black then you have assumed way too much. |
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'Separation' and 'Experience?' |
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Mark 15:34
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The way I've heard the separation explained is the Mark 15:34 passage: And at the ninth hour Jesus cried out in a loud voice, "Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani?"--which means, "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?
The term forsaken could imply different meanings but one interpretation is that God "severed the link" for moment so that Jesus would be fully able to die for our sins.
As far as the "experiencing Hell" part, I think you might be refering to Eph 4:8-10 - This is why it says: "When he ascended on high, he led captives in his train and gave gifts to men." (What does "he ascended" mean except that he also descended to the lower, earthly regions ? He who descended is the very one who ascended higher than all the heavens, in order to fill the whole universe.)
I've heard this verse used to describe that Jesus went to "an area of Hell" that was more of a waiting place for those God favored (Moses, Abe, Josh, Noah, etc...) Jesus freed them from this area and opened the door to Heaven for them and those that believe.
As far as if this would be the way I would interpret them, I can't say. I'd have to do a whole lot more studying before I could say one way or the other. There may be other verses that are used to support these ideas but these are the ones that came to mind. |
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who are the spirits in this verse? |
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1 Peter
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The key to understanding this passage is in the tense of the verbs. Peter is not saying that Jesus went to Hades and preached to people who were there.
V. 19 begins by saying "in which", which refers back to the last phrase of v. 18: "in the spirit." Since "spirit" and "flesh" are contrasted in v. 18, the contrast is between the two very different kinds of realms. The "flesh" is the physical, seen realm in which we commonly live, and the "spirit" is the spiritual, unseen realm in which Jesus was raised and in which we now live. (By my saying that Jesus was raised in the spiritual realm, I am not denying the fact that He was raised physically from the dead. But His resurrection was a supernatural, spiritual act of God.)
In the spiritual realm (v. 19 could be paraphrased), Jesus went and made proclamation (past tense) to the spirits (now) in prison). If we can determine when Jesus made the proclamation, then we can determine who the spirits are. Verse 20 tells us when Jesus made the proclamation: "in the days of Noah."
To paraphrase, what these verses are teaching is that when Noah was building the ark, Jesus, in the spiritual realm, "went and made proclamation" through the lips of Noah to those "who were disobedient." They, having rejected the message, are now "spirits in prison."
This is a difficult passage, and my interpretation is not original with me, but I do believe that it answers the grammatical and theological issues that can be raised. |
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how long to build ark? |
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Not Specified
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in gen. how long did it take noah to build the ark? |
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Can angels have human babies? |
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Gen 6:4
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Conclusion Regarding Angels
The wickedness of man in the days of Noah.
Gen 6 Chapter
(1-2) Intermarriage between the sons of God and the daughters of men.
During these days of rapid population expansion especially because of long life spans in the pre-flood world, there was a problem with ungodly intermarriage between the sons of God and the daughters of men.
Many people have understood that the sons of God were those from the line of Seth, and the daughters of men were from the line of Cain, and this describes an intermarriage between the godly and ungodly - something God Specifically prohibits (Deu 7:-4; 2 Cor 6:14)
but this approach leaves many unanswered questions: Why did this make God angry enought to wipe out almost all the earth's population? Why was there something "unnatural" about the offspring of there unions?
The phrase sons of God Clearly refers The angelic creatures when it is used the three other times in the OT (Job 1:6, 2:1, and 38:7). The translators of the Septuagint translated sons of God as "angels"; they clearly thought it referred to angelic beings, not the line of Seth.
Jude 6 tells us of the angesls who did not keep their proper domain, but left their own habitation; Jude goes on (7) to tell us that they sinned in a similar manner to these, having given themselves over to sexual unnatural sexual union.
It is useless to speculate on the nature of the union. Whether it was brought about by something like demon possession, or whether angels have power permanently to assume the form of men is not revealed. But we should understand that the occult is filled with sexual associations with demonic, and there are those today who actively pursue such associations.
Jude 6 also makes it clear what God did with these wicked angels: they are reserved in everlasting chains under darkness from the judgment of the great day. By not keeping their proper place, they are now kept in chains-their sinful persuit of freedom has put them in bondage.
1 Peter 3:19-20 tells us that Jesus went to these disobedient spirits in their prison and proclaimed His victory on the cross over them.
An objection offered to theis understanding is found in Matt 22:30, Where Jesus said that angels neither marry nor given in marriage; but Jesus never said that ANGELS WERE SEXLESS, and He was also speaking about faithful angels (angels of God in heaven), not rebellious one.
From the book of 1 Enoch, which is not inspired scripture by man, but may still contain some accurate accounts: "And it came to pass the children of men had multiplied that in those days were born unto them beautiful and comely daughters. And the angels, the children of heaven, saw and lusted after them, and said one another: 'Come, let us choose for himself one, and they began to go unto them and to defile themselves with them, and they taught them charms and enchantments...And they became pregnant, and they bared great giants...And there arose much godlessness, and they commited fornication, and they were led astray, and became corrupt in all their ways."
Why would satan send his angels to intermarry(either directly or indirectly with human women?
Satan was trying to pollute the genetic "pool" of mankind with a satanic corruption; to put a genetic "virus" that would make the human race unfit for bring forth the Seed of the woman-the Messiah-promised in Gen 3:15.
"The Savior could not be born of a demon-possessed mother. So if satan could succeed in infecting the entire race, the deliverer could not could not come."
And, satan almost succeed; the race was so polluted that God found it necessary to start again with Noah and his sons, and imprison the demons who did this, so they could never do so again.
3-4 God's first promises that His Spirit shall not strive with man forever; this means that there is a point of "no return" in our rejection of God. God will not woo us forever, there is a point where He will say "no more".
Verse four refers to the unnatrual offspring of the union between the sons of God and the daughters of men; though there were people of unusual size on the earth both before and after the flood (and also afterward), these before the flood were unique because of the demonic element of their parentage-they were the might men of old, men of renown. I pray that this be a Blessing to those who are seeking of God word of truth. To who the reader may be...Study and show yourself approved unto 'God' and workman the need not to be ashame but rightly dividing the word of truth. II Tim 2:15 The reference you need is in the Word of God. My answer is "YES" angels can produce offspring if God the Father allows or permits it. But there's a price for disobedient and rebellious angels, demons, peoples, and etc.
Don't take my words, take God's word. When you study. Let your spirit lead you to the material to read or study. Ehp 4:14-15 |
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how long to build ark? |
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Gen 5:32
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in gen. how long did it take noah to build the ark? |
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how long to build ark? |
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Gen 5:32
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Noah was five hundred years old when he had his sons (before construction began) (Gen 5:32). And his sons were married when the construction began (Gen. 6:18). According to Jewish custom, a boy becomes a man when he gets his beard, so I would assume that Noah was at least 510 to 515 years old when the boys were married. When the rain began to fall, Noah was 600 years old (Gen 7:11). This leaves 85 to 90 years for Noah to build his ark. There was no shortage of time for Noah, but the amount he actually used is not clear according to scriptures. |
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3 days and 3 nights as a Hebrew idiom |
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Matt 12:40
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I agree with you both. Also it fits with the New Testament, where it says Noah's ark was a type (picture)of Christ.
It says in Genesis 8:4 "In the seventh month, on the seventeenth day of the month, the ark rested upon the mountains of Ararat."
Remember after the Exodus, God said of the seventh month the Seventh month Exodus 12:2 "This month shall be the beginning of months for you; it is to be the first month of the year to you"
They picked the lamb on the 10th - triumphal entry.
They slaughtered the lamb on the 14th - Crucifixion (Thursday).
The feast of first fruits was the day after the sabbath, the 17th (Sunday, the same day the ark rested on the land.
Also note that we know that the actual date of the start of Daniel's 70 weeks is March 14, 445 BC because of the moon. 69 weeks of 360 day years (prophetic years - see Revelation) lands exactly on April 10 (Palm Sunday), 32 AD. Passover was Thursday in 32 AD. |
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angels have no forgiveness when they sin |
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1 Pet 3:18
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I am not sure the nature of your question. Do the angels have a chance to repent? Possibly.
1 Peter 3
18 For Christ also died for sins once for all, the just for the unjust, so that He might bring us to God, having been put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the
spirit;
19 in which also He went and made proclamation to the spirits now in prison,
20 who once were disobedient, when the patience of God kept waiting in the days of Noah, during the construction of the ark, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were brought safely through the water.
It is believed by some that this passage refers to fallen angels who became men at the time of Noah. If so, then they did get a chance to repent.
Did Adam and Eve get a chance to repent?
Yes, four simple evidences:
First, the Gospel was preached to them in Genesis 3:15.
Second, God shed blood for them immdiately.
Genesis 3:21 The LORD God made garments of skin for Adam and his wife, and clothed them.
The garments were of skin. An animal had to die.
Matthew 26:28 for this is My blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for forgiveness of sins.
Third, they knew how to sacrafice. Cain and Abel were taught the proper way - shed blood. See Genesis 4.
Fifth, Adam lived to be 935 (Genesis 5:5). He was around when Noah was born. From Adam to Noah (Adam, Seth... Noah), if you put the meaning of their names together, it is the Gospel.
Adam and Eve knew God would provide a savior. |
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Questions for my Calvinists friends. |
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Job 38:1
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I have cut and pasted in your three questions and now will try to answer them "directly", as best I can.
1) If God pre-chose only some individuals that were to be saved, why did he destroy them in the flood? I guess you could always say the Noah and family were the only ones he chose but why then go to all the trouble of populating the world and wipe it out with a flood?
Answer: I'm not sure what you mean here. Who is the "them"? I suppose you refer to all of mankind dying in the flood. But this has nothing to do with election/free-will. To be blunt, everyone dies sooner or later. The only difference in this case (the Flood) was that all but 8 died all at once rather than just some each day. It is possible that some of them were elect and went on to paradise. Although this is doubtful in view of Gen 6:5-8 which seems to say that only Noah was found acceptable by God. But to imply a lack of election because of the timing and/manner of the physical deaths of many people is mixing apples and oranges. The same question could then apply to any case of mass slaughter of humans, some of whom may be elect and saved while others are not. Bluntly put, the question makes no sense. Sorry.
2) If God had his "Elect" already in mind and knew they were going to be saved because the could not resist God, why then did Jesus have to die?
Answer: Jesus had to die and rise again to be the propitiation (atoning sacrifice) for the sins of the elect. The fact that a sinner has been chosen by God unto salvation is an act of a loving and gracious God showing forth his mercy towards someone who not only doesn't deserve mercy he actually deserves eternal punishment. But God is just as well as loving. Hence the penalty for the sin had to be paid by Someone who had no sin of His own to atone for. Hence the perfect sinless humanity of Jesus was an absolute requirement. He also had to be divine, infinite in His capacity to atone for the sins of more than just one person. God couldn't simply choose someone to salvation out of His loving nature without also satisfying His just nature. And to respond to one statement in your answer to your own question, Jesus was not sent to show us the path. He WAS/IS the path!
3) Why would it be harder for a rich man to enter the Kindgom of Heaven?
Answer: One whose heart is set upon his earthly riches to the point that he prefers them to God is evidence that he has never been truly converted and has no real love for God (cf 1 Jn 2:15 and similar Scriptures). Hence, as it is obviously absurdly impossible for a camel to pass through the eye of a needle, it is even more absurd, or "harder", for the unconverted rich man to enter heaven.
This question, by the way, would probably fit in better with a Lordship/cheap-grace debate rather than election/free-will. But in many respects the two questions are closely linked, anyway. But that is another topic for another time.
Also, at the end of your comments you made a very telling remark that in effect contradicts your whole point. If God can over-ride the will (your words), then the will is not truly free, is it? And that is precisely the issue. Scripture, from beginning to end, shows that the will of fallen man always runs away from God rather than towards Him. (cf Rom 3:9-18; etc) The only way for God to save any person is to perform in such a way as to over-ride that evil will which is inherent to each and every one of us.
Hope I have answered you directly enough.
Ron
(A poor sinner saved by the gracious choice of a loving and just God!) |
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How did Noah know about clean animals? |
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Not Specified
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When God instructs Noah to collect the animals to be placed on the ark, He tells him to gather two of each unclean animal and extras of the clean animals for sacrifice. How does Noah know what animals are clean? The law had not yet been given to Moses. |
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where do blacks come from? |
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Bible general Archive 1
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Just ran across this site and had to give a response. Sorry, I'm in a hurry and don't have all the specific, biblical references handy, but will, in another post, if necessary. I believe a better question might be "Where do those that are not Black come from ?" Unbiased secular science has already backed up what we all know, that all human life came from "A Woman". It is a scientific fact that a gene called "melanon" sp?, is responsible for the color of a persons skin. The more melanon you have, the darker you are. Albinoes are the result of a severe to total lack of this gene. It is also a fact that 2 parents with little melanon, CANNOT have a child that has more melanon !! Unless, there is a recessive gene- a gene that skips a generation or 2. In this case the only way that 2 parents could have a darker child is if a grandparent or great grandparent was of a darker color than the parents. Although, 2 parents with "lots" of melanon can have children of varying shades, even albinoes. BTW, there are blacks that are classified as albinoes. Simply put, Adam and Eve couldn't of been "white", based on proven science and the Bible. Racism has stated that blacks came from the curse of Noah on Ham, but if you read the actual text in context, the curse has nothing to do with skin color, since Noah had to be a person of color. Gen 9:25 "Cursed be Canaan; A servant of servants He shall be to his brethren." If you read through verse 27 you will see that Ham's son Canaan and Canaan's offspring, those nations would be servants to the nations that would come from the brothers of Ham.
"For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus." |
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How did Noah know about clean animals? |
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Genesis
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When God instructs Noah to collect the animals to be placed on the ark, He tells him to gather two of each unclean animal and extras of the clean animals for sacrifice. How does Noah know what animals are clean? The law had not yet been given to Moses. |
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How did Noah know about clean animals? |
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Genesis
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Ask yourself this question ... did Noah actually gather the animals himself, or did God send the animals to Noah? In all likelihood, the latter occured. If so, God gathered the requisite number of animals (clean and unclean) Himself and presented them to Noah. Upon counting seven animals of a kind, Noah then knew they were "clean" (albeit, after the fact). |
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How did Noah know about clean animals? |
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Gen 4:5
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When God instructs Noah to collect the animals to be placed on the ark, He tells him to gather two of each unclean animal and extras of the clean animals for sacrifice. How does Noah know what animals are clean? The law had not yet been given to Moses. |
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How did Noah know about clean animals? |
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Gen 4:5
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The Bible does not say exactly, but I think God must have told them what to sacrifice and what not to. Remember Cain's sacrifice (Gen. 4:5)that was rejected, I know there are other thoughts on this, I think I read a group of postings about this on the forum, but I am convinced that God did not except Cain's sacrifice because it was bloodless.
But to answer your question, God would not ask us to do something like this and not tell us what was acceptable and what was not, so He must have told them.
later...wdc |
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Dinosaurs mentioned in the Bible? |
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Not Specified
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I have undergone a study on the Dinosaurs. What does the Bible say about them?
First, I want to make clear that I believe that the
earth is only thousands of years old, not millions
or billions. Second, I believe that God created the
earth in six 24-hour days (Exodus 20:11). I don't
expect you all to agree with me, and I would
appreciate you tellng me if you feel differently about
anything that I have come up with. Genesis 1:21-25
tells us that God created the animals (including the
Dinosaurs) and humankind on the sixth day. Man was
given the task to name these animals but Adam used
names like 'behemoth' and 'leviathan'. It is
conceivable that man and dinosaur lived on the earth
together right up to and after the great worldwide
flood. And Noah might have included a few smaller,
younger representatives of the dinosaurs in his Ark.
But many other kinds of plants and animals were lost
forever (Genesis 6:17). It is interesting to note
that animals began to fear men only after the flood
(Genesis 9:2-3)..
However, I am convinced that there was a drop in
temperature (Job 37:6-10, 38:22,29) in the earth after
the flood, which explains the existence of Antarctica,
the Glaciers and the Polar icecaps, (which was God's
way of dealing with the surplus of water that sprang
forth in Genesis 7:11) and this temperature change may
have contributed to the dinosaurs' disappearance upon
the earth. But they at least were around by the time
of Job, and the people of Job's time knew about
dinosaurs since dinosaurs are discribed in detail in
Job 40:15 to 41:34.
I do not believe that birds are direct descendants of
dinosaurs, since the Bible speaks of the migration of
the hawk (Job 39:26), the dove, stork, thrush and
swift (Jeremiah 8:7).. In other words, birds flew
across the earth from the beginning of time and they
are not the end result of any kind of evolution.
Also, Genesis 1:29-30 declares that all animals and
people began as plant eaters and the world was
entirely vegetarian at the beginning. But
eventually animals became carnivorous and people ate meat only
until after the flood (Genesis 9:3). It is
interesting to note that even though animals did
become carnivorous, they will return to a
nonagressive nature (Isaiah 11:6-7). So will we become
vegetarians in the future? :)
So did the dinosaurs breathe fire? Job 41 leads me to
believe that this may have been likely, which would
explain the source of "Fire Breathing Dragons"
stories. What about the Loch Ness monster? Maybe.
There are many underwater caverns that have not been
explored on this earth. I'm not ruling out the
possibility that all sea dwelling dinosaurs are extinct.
But I am strictly against evolution of any kind, since
Psalm 94:9 clearly states that God formed the ears and
the eyes. Romans 1:20 is interesting in this light-
that we are without excuse in wake of God's awesome
creation. Another water/fire parallel here, to
reflect back on the worldwide flood, is the second and
final judgment of the future in which the heavens and
the earth will be cleansed by fire! (2 Peter 3:10-12).
I believe that the world is a lot younger than
scientists think and that man and dinosaurs
co-existed at some point. I am still studying continental drift
and things of that nature.. I hope you enjoyed the
results of my study, and I wanted to share this with
you to provide a NON-evolution way of looking at
Dinosaurs.
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Dinosaurs mentioned in the Bible? |
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Job 3:8
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I have undergone a study on the Dinosaurs. What does the Bible say about them?
First, I want to make clear that I believe that the
earth is only thousands of years old, not millions
or billions. Second, I believe that God created the
earth in six 24-hour days (Exodus 20:11). I don't
expect you all to agree with me, and I would
appreciate you tellng me if you feel differently about
anything that I have come up with. Genesis 1:21-25
tells us that God created the animals (including the
Dinosaurs) and humankind on the sixth day. Man was
given the task to name these animals but Adam used
names like 'behemoth' and 'leviathan'. It is
conceivable that man and dinosaur lived on the earth
together right up to and after the great worldwide
flood. And Noah might have included a few smaller,
younger representatives of the dinosaurs in his Ark.
But many other kinds of plants and animals were lost
forever (Genesis 6:17). It is interesting to note
that animals began to fear men only after the flood
(Genesis 9:2-3)..
However, I am convinced that there was a drop in
temperature (Job 37:6-10, 38:22,29) in the earth after
the flood, which explains the existence of Antarctica,
the Glaciers and the Polar icecaps, (which was God's
way of dealing with the surplus of water that sprang
forth in Genesis 7:11) and this temperature change may
have contributed to the dinosaurs' disappearance upon
the earth. But they at least were around by the time
of Job, and the people of Job's time knew about
dinosaurs since dinosaurs are discribed in detail in
Job 40:15 to 41:34.
I do not believe that birds are direct descendants of
dinosaurs, since the Bible speaks of the migration of
the hawk (Job 39:26), the dove, stork, thrush and
swift (Jeremiah 8:7).. In other words, birds flew
across the earth from the beginning of time and they
are not the end result of any kind of evolution.
Also, Genesis 1:29-30 declares that all animals and
people began as plant eaters and the world was
entirely vegetarian at the beginning. But
eventually animals became carnivorous and people ate meat only
until after the flood (Genesis 9:3). It is
interesting to note that even though animals did
become carnivorous, they will return to a
nonagressive nature (Isaiah 11:6-7). So will we become
vegetarians in the future? :)
So did the dinosaurs breathe fire? Job 41 leads me to
believe that this may have been likely, which would
explain the source of "Fire Breathing Dragons"
stories. What about the Loch Ness monster? Maybe.
There are many underwater caverns that have not been
explored on this earth. I'm not ruling out the
possibility that all sea dwelling dinosaurs are extinct.
But I am strictly against evolution of any kind, since
Psalm 94:9 clearly states that God formed the ears and
the eyes. Romans 1:20 is interesting in this light-
that we are without excuse in wake of God's awesome
creation. Another water/fire parallel here, to
reflect back on the worldwide flood, is the second and
final judgment of the future in which the heavens and
the earth will be cleansed by fire! (2 Peter 3:10-12).
I believe that the world is a lot younger than
scientists think and that man and dinosaurs
co-existed at some point. I am still studying continental drift
and things of that nature.. I hope you enjoyed the
results of my study, and I wanted to share this with
you to provide a NON-evolution way of looking at
Dinosaurs.
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Dinosaurs mentioned in the Bible? |
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Job 3:8
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Hi, Nolan. The Leviathan of Job 3:8, Psalm 104:26 and Isaiah 27:1 has been seen by some students of the Bible as possibly being of the dinosaur family. Beyond that, the best I can do is recommend a superb Web site that I believe you will find helpful and absorbing now that you're "in" to the creation story, the Noah's flood story and all the flora and fauna of that epoch. Try icr.org. I won't elaborate further except to say I recommend this organization without any reservation. They too believe in the young earth idea and, believe me, have lots and lots of good information on dinosaurs! If you want more on this organization, e-mail me by all means. Yours in Christ. --Hank |
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Is suicide a sin? |
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Ex 20:13
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1 john is talking to believers and it is not talking about heaven. It is talking about fellowship with God not heaven at all. The theme of the book is: What should a believer do to walk in fellowship with the Lord.
1 John 2:17
"The world is passing away, and also its lusts; but the one who does the will of God lives forever." Who is God's will for?
##There is nothing about heaven in this verses.
What is the "Will of God"?
What do the following verses have to do with a Christian committing suicide? NOTHING!
4 For if God did not spare angels when they sinned, but cast them into hell and committed them to pits of darkness, reserved for judgment;
5 and did not spare the ancient world, but preserved Noah, a preacher of righteousness, with seven others, when He brought a flood upon the world of the ungodly;
6 and if He condemned the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah to destruction by reducing them to ashes, having made them an example to those who would live ungodly lives thereafter;
7 and if He rescued righteous Lot, oppressed by the sensual conduct of unprincipled men
8 (for by what he saw and heard that righteous man, while living among them, felt his righteous soul tormented day after day by their lawless deeds),
9 then the Lord knows how to rescue the godly from temptation, and to keep the unrighteous under punishment for the day of judgment,
10 and especially those who indulge the flesh in its corrupt desires and despise authority. Daring, self-willed, they do not tremble when they revile angelic majesties,
11 whereas angels who are greater in might and power do not bring a reviling judgment against them before the Lord.
12 But these, like unreasoning animals, born as creatures of instinct to be captured and killed, reviling where they have no knowledge, will in the destruction of those creatures also be destroyed,
13 suffering wrong as the wages of doing wrong. They count it a pleasure to revel in the daytime. They are stains and blemishes, reveling in their deceptions, as they carouse with you,
14 having eyes full of adultery that never cease from sin, enticing unstable souls, having a heart trained in greed, accursed children;
15 forsaking the right way, they have gone astray, having followed the way of Balaam, the son of Beor, who loved the wages of unrighteousness;
16 but he received a rebuke for his own transgression, for a mute donkey, speaking with a voice of a man, restrained the madness of the prophet.
17 These are springs without water and mists driven by a storm, for whom the black darkness has been reserved.
18 For speaking out arrogant words of vanity they entice by fleshly desires, by sensuality, those who barely escape from the ones who live in error,
19 promising them freedom while they themselves are slaves of corruption; for by what a man is overcome, by this he is enslaved.
20 For if, after they have escaped the defilements of the world by the knowledge of the Lord and Savior Jesus Christ, they are again entangled in them and are overcome, the last state has become worse for them than the first.
21 For it would be better for them not to have known the way of righteousness, than having known it, to turn away from the holy commandment handed on to them.
22 It has happened to them according to the true proverb, "A DOG RETURNS TO ITS OWN VOMIT," and, "A sow, after washing, returns to wallowing in the mire."
Just to make sure you understand what I said. Yes, a Christian can "live" in sin and still go to heaven. Without a doubt. Why do you think it is called "Eternal Life"? Why is it called a gift? Not something you work for. It's free.
One must learn to keep verses in there context. I'm not sure what your trying to do.
There is not one verse in all the Bible that says if a Christian lives in their sin they won't go to heaven. Show me one, just one.
Hermenutics to ya.
Have a great day.
FisH
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Noah and his family |
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1 Pet 3:20
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Genesis 6:13 says that God was determined to make an end to ALL flesh, however, Noah had found favor with the Lord (Gen 6:8). God instructed Noah to take his household, Noah, his wife, their 3 sons and the sons wives, into the ark, for Noah alone was righteous before God (Gen 7:1). Genesis 7:23 tells us that the God blotted out every living thing that was on the face of the ground, human beings and animals...only Noah was left and those in the ark. It was a physical salvation. We now know that this did truly take place in the physical because God has allowed the ark to be found on the top of Mt Arafat. prayon |
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Noah and his family |
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1 Pet 3:20
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prayon,
With all due respect sir, I think we know this to be true because God stated it to be a fact, not because we (allegedly) found the ark on the top of Mt. Arafat. (Arafat is the name of a Palestinian leader, the ark rested upon the mountains of Ararat)
Although this did happen in the flesh, it is also a "type" of spiritual salvation. The ark represents Christ, Noah and his family representing the human race (literally), the waters have a unilateral meaning. Water was used to destroy and to cleanse, representing the washing of regeneration when the old man dies and the new man becomes alive. This is the Spirit's baptism, not a water baptism. The waters both destroyed and cleansed the earth and the waters never touched Noah and his family but by faith they were saved by the same waters that destroyed all other life.
Sam Hughey |
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Noah and his family |
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1 Pet 3:20
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Are you suggesting that Noah changed God's mind on ending "all flesh"?
I don't think we should assume that God ever intended on wiping the entire human race off the face of the earth for several reasons:
1. Satan wins in that scenario (Genesis 3:15).
2. The plan for salvation through Christ Jesus was established before the foundation of the world (Ephesians 1:4). If no more people were left, no Jesus to come. That means everyone is without a Redeemer, so all humanity dies in its sins.
4. Romans 8:28-30 tells us we were all foreknown, so God planned on us being here.
3. More evidence that Noah is not included in "all flesh" is found later in Chapter 6, when God tells him he has decided to end "all flesh," and then instructs him to build the ark. Evidently Noah was not part of the plan.
God intended on wiping out the human race except for Noah's family.
Thanks for your input!
--Joe! |
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Noah and his family |
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1 Pet 3:20
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An interesteing side note on this: In my missionary position, I will train teenagers this summer to use evangelistic materials aimed at children to put on backyard Bible clubs. The problematic part is that one of the days has to do with Noah, and the materials add to Scripture by suggesting that God wanted to save everyone. Noah "must have" tried to convince people to get on the ark with them, but they just wouldn't listen and be saved like God so desperately "wanted"!
Needless to say, that error will be addressed during the training sessions...good thing these materials are developed by another Christian organization and not mine!
--Joe! |
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We may be missing something here |
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1 Pet 3:20
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Excuse me for butting in but I think we may be missing something. First let’s look at God’s definition of Noah … Noah, a preacher of righteousness… 2 Peter 2:5.
Now lets see there was the time of the Arks construction. Then there was seven days after Noah and his family entered into the Ark before the flood. Then we see see this reference in 1 Peter 3:20 … when the patience of God kept waiting in the days of Noah, during the construction of the ark, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were brought safely through the water.
Knowing what a preacher is like does anyone think Noah didn’t preach during this time. And isn’t the patience of God the construction plus the seven days He waited after Noah entered the Ark. Why would God do that unless Noah was preaching during this time calling people to repentance and God givng them one last chance to have a change of heart? 2 Peter 3:9 The Lord is not slow about His promise, as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing for any to perish but for all to come to repentance.
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We may be missing something here |
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1 Pet 3:20
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Well, on these forums, all of us are "butting in"! Your comments are most welcome.
Yes, Noah was preacher of righteousness. I didn't mean to suggest that he kept silent during this time (or even before God instructed him to build the ark). What I do contend is that God purposed to desroy humanit with the exception of eight people.
Proclaiming God's truth is to reveal Him, not only to "convince" others of the truth. We see this in Philippians 1:27-28, where the Phiplippians' unity in preaching the gospel served as a "sign of destruction" for the unbelievers persecuting them. Likewise, Noah's preaching (whatever form it took -- the Bible is silent on this) could also be considered to be God's "sign of destruction" for the rest of the world.
My real argument against the study materials was not that Noah preached, but rather that God was unsuccessful in convincing the unbelieving world to repent.
As far as God's patience in 2 Peter 3:9, let's take a look at why he is patient. It has to do with whom he is addressing. God is patient toward "you". To whom did Peter address his letter (v. 1:1)? Other believers. Therefore, God is not being patient here toward the non-elect, but rather toward the elect who have not been regenerated (including those who had not been born like you and me). There would be no other reason for God to be patient toward believers, since those already saved would not need God to hold back the second coming of Christ and destruction of the world (which is the context of 2 Peter 3:9). The "all" here is not all mankind (since no one but universalists argue that ALL will ever be saved), but rather all of God's elect (1 Peter 1:1-5).
Likewise, was God being patient toward the rest of the world, or toward Noah in the time he was building his ark? God's wrath will be poured out on sinful humanity at some point in the future, just like it was poured out on those in Noah's day. At what point does an omniscient God "decide" that enough is enough, since both Arminians and Calvinists both argue that God KNOWS who will repent?
Thanks for your comments!
--Joe! |
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