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Who is God referring to? |
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Gen 1:26
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God is referring to the
Trinity of the Godhead:
1. God the Father
2. God the Son
3. God the Holy Spirit |
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HOW COULD JESUS BE A DESCENDANT OF DAVID |
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Bible general Archive 1
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HOW COULD JESUS BE A DESCENDANT OF DAVID IF HE WAS CONCIEVED BY THE HOLY SPIRIT? HE DID NOT HAVE AN EARTHLY FATHER. |
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Who wrote the Old Testament? |
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OT general
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Holy men of old, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. |
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What is Pentecost and its significance? |
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Acts 2:1
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Acts 1:8 says,"But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Spirit is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto Me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth."
Jesus had told them not to depart from Jerusalem, but to wait for the promise of the Father,which ye have heard of me.
For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days heance. Acts 1:4-5
Pentecost was this baptism of the Holy Spirit on the ones that it had been promised.
It's significance was to spread the Gospel to everyone that was in Jerusalem on that day, for they all heard in their own language.
This caused the Gospel of Jesus Christ to be spread abroad very quickly. |
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Is there sacrifice for sin after Jesus |
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Heb 10:12
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Dave, Yes, I understand those things, however I also am aware that the day will come when every knee will bow and every tongue confess that Jesus is Lord, including that specific group of people, the Jews. In Ezekiel 43:7 says 7 He said to me, “Son of man, this is the place of My throne and the place of the soles of My feet, where I will dwell among the sons of Israel forever. And the house of Israel will not again defile My holy name, neither they nor their kings, by their harlotry and by the corpses of their kings when they die,
Verses like this indicate a permanence or final condition, and are a prophetic revelation not yet fullfilled. Back to you Dave. Thanks for the discussion. |
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What is Pentecost and its significance? |
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Acts 2:1
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Pentecost is the Promise of a Universal Outpouring of the Holy Spirit upon believers who ask for Him (See Luke 11:11, 12, 13) with manifestations Peter emphasizes in his sermon, a promise the Father made centuries earlier by the Prophet Joel (Joel 2) as Peter shows further in Chap. 2. It is the seal of the promise Jesus made in John 14 when He said he would not leave us as orphans, but would send us another comforter, the Holy Spirit.
By the Holy Spirit Jesus constantly remains Emmanuel, God among us. The day iof Pentecost is recorded in history as the birthday of the church which is the body of Christ on earth. |
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holy kiss |
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1 Thess 5:26
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I've always read "Holy kiss" but never stopped to consider its meaning. Any ideas? (cp., "un-holy kiss"). |
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holy kiss |
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1 Thess 5:26
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The holy kiss (Rom 16:16; 1 Cor 16:20; 2 Cor 13:12; 1 Thess 5:26) was adopted as a formal greeting among believers. The holy kiss showed love and charity. I would not like to think of the opposite. ..........
But, kisses were shown to be used in different ways in the Bible too, I'll list some of the negatives here: An act of worship toward heathen gods (1 Kings 19:18, 20; Job 31:27; Hos 13:2). To lure illicit love (Prov 7:13). Judas kissed Jesus to betray Him (Matt 26:48-49; Mark 14:44-45; Luke 22:47-48). ................... I hope this helps. |
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Was Pharaoh responsible? |
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Rom 9:17
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There is certainly room for disagreement on how much control God exercised over Pharaoh's heart and decisions at this time, but I think Romans 9:19-23 laves no question that Pharaoh was held guilty for the attitude that he had toward the Lord and his people. -- -- I am not of a Beza-Calvinist position that would suggest deliberate control over a person's final responsiveness to the Holy Spirit's conviction. Immediately before this exposition of God's control is the sequence of Romans 8:28-30, where God's foreknowledge of his people is followed by predestination to conform us to his image, then calling, justification and glorification in respective sequence. -- -- I assert that Pharaoh's heart was against God and his people. However, even a king who refused to worship God and love his people would be expected to exercise wisdom through temporary repentance. It is this temporary repentance that God prevented. His objective was not to have his people go into the desert, worship him, and return to slavery under a pagan king; his objective was to lead his people into a new life free from slavery and under willing submission to Himself as Lord and Savior. God controlled circumstances and even intervened in Pharaoh's heart and plans to accomplish this purpose and to bring himself glory. -- -- God does not choose to crush the wicked (whom he foreknows) before they are born but endures them despite his knowledge that their creation will result only in rebellion and destruction. However, he intervenes as he wishes in order to reveal Himself and to keep his plans for the righteous on course. -- -- I don't know whether the totality of what Pharaoh saw finally convicted him -- bringing him to repentance -- or whether he went the route of (most of) the Pharisees in blaspheming the Spirit in the face of unquestionable demonstration of God's power and authority in the world. His part in the Bible story ends at the Red Sea, but there is no indication in the history that I know that either Pharaoh or the Egypt of Pharaoh's time turned from their idols to God. Instead, those who turned to God apparently left with the Israelites as part of the "mixed multitude" (Ex.12:38). |
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Is this the first time John saw Jesus? |
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John 1:29
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There's no Biblical account of this being the first time that John and Jesus met, but they were cousins (both of their mothers were sisters) and I think thay might have grown up with each other. Remember that John leaped in his mother's womb (Luke 1:41) when Mary met Elizabeth (Mary's sister), so being filled with the Holy Spirit John knew that the baby in Mary's womb was the Christ. |
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Take Your Holy Spirit from me? |
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Ps 51:11
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"No believer of the present Church Age need ever pray, 'Take not thy Holy Spirit from me'; for Christ promised His own that the Spirit would 'abide with you forever' (Jn. 14:16; compare Eph. 4:30). But it is always proper for the Christian to pray that he may be conformed to the conditions essential to the full ministry of the Spirit." (note at Ps. 51:11, New Scofield Reference Bible, 1967, Oxford University Press) "In the O.T. economy, the Holy Spirit was particularly related to service, rather than salvation...Here David is asking God not to take away his service as the anointed king of Israel..." (p. 846, The Ryrie Study Bible, 1976, 1978, Moody Press) |
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HOW COULD JESUS BE A DESCENDANT OF DAVID |
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Bible general Archive 1
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Jesus, the Messiah, Deliverer, Son of God and King of Kings, was concieved by the Holy Spirit and born of a virgin. The fullness of the Godhead dwelt bodily in Jesus while he was in every way a human being. Jesus was not fathered by any man, since no man had been with Mary (Luke 1:34). And Joseph, Mary's betrothed husband, at first struggled to accept this fact but later accepted it (Matthew 1:19-25). But Jesus had to be 'brought up' or 'brought forth' from the line of David; he Himself had to find his earthly beginnings and achieve his earthly ministry while being of the Kingly heritage of David. God's promise to David is ultimately fulfilled by Jesus as David's 'descendant' of whom it was promised in 2 Samuel 7:16, and in the line of Judah in Genesis 49:10: both fulfilled by the Lord Jesus Christ! And Luke 3:23-38 shows the 'direct line' genealogy from Mary, the vessel in which God used to deliver His only Son into this world, all the way down to David, and it even goes from David to Adam! And if you look in Matthew 1:1-17, you can see how Joseph, who was the step-father of Jesus, was also in the Kingly heritage, being a descendant of King David. So Jesus was in fact a descendant of David as well as being part of the royal heritage as promised by God. Now you ask: "What do you think about the Christ, whose son is He?" (Matthew 22:41-46) They said to Him, "The son of David." Jesus said to them, "Then how does David in the Spirit call him 'Lord', saying, "THE LORD SAID TO MY LORD, 'SIT AT MY RIGHT HAND, UNTIL I PUT YOUR ENEMIES BENEATH YOUR FEET' '? If David then calls him 'Lord', how is He his son?" Very good question! Here is the answer: Jesus was a descendant of David while he dwelt upon this earth, but He has always been and has always existed as God. He was never created by God but has always existed as part of the Godhead with His Father and the Holy Spirit. In this passage (Matthew 22:41-46), David called upon the Lord during his life, even the Lord Jesus! Now he says, 'THE LORD SAID TO MY LORD'.. This is God the Father in heaven saying to God the Son, "SIT AT MY RIGHT HAND UNTIL I PUT YOUR ENEMIES BENEATH YOUR FEET." So God the Son ascended into heaven to assume His Lordship at God the Father's right hand until the time when Jesus will return to earth in the Second Coming of Christ. So this is how the Lord Jesus is David's Lord (whom David called upon) and also David's son, or descendant, at the same time. I hope that this explanation helps. I use the New American Standard Bible ('95), which is my very favorite translation! |
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records of unlawful entry into veil? |
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Not Specified
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Are there any records of men unlawfully entering the Holy of Holies in the tabernacle? If so, who and where is it documented in the Bible? |
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Jesus' name baptism? |
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Acts 2:38
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Apparently the apostles baptized in the name of Jesus. Was this a revelation from the Holy Spirit after Jesus said in Matthew 28:19 to baptize in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit? |
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Why did Jesus have to beborn of a virgin |
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Bible general Archive 1
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This is an excellent though-provoking question. I would advocate that God's plan as to how the baby would be born came prior to the prophecy -- not the other way around. Of course, the Son of God would need to have God as a parent in order to be God (maintain his God-hood as a person) genetically. However, I don't see that a faithful and consistent wife or a widow would contribute any more "sinful" of a nature than a virgin. (In fact, this concept in an extreme form could lead to wives witholding relations in a way that could hinder the marriage relationship.) There is a connection of virginity with ceremonial purity, however, that could be significant. In addition, female virginity is typically verifiable by physical means for the majority of women. In this way, Mary's virginity right up to the point of birth would most likely have been verifiable by Joseph, a midwife or anyone else who was allowed to investigate fully; her virginity would act as a testimony, therefore, that the "male seed" was placed there by the Holy Spirit rather than through sexual intercourse. With a non-virgin, there would always be more room for question and accusation. |
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Jesus' name baptism? |
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Acts 2:38
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'According to Jesus [in Matt 28:19], baptism is to be administered "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit" . . . Evangelicals accept this verse as Jesus' words and agree that the Trinitarian formula was spoken by the Son of God himself.' (NRSV Harper Study Bible, note at Matt 28:19) Acts 2:38 is 'not a contradiction to the fuller formula given in Matt 28:19. In Acts the abbreviated form emphasizes the distinctive quality of this baptism, for Jesus is now included in a way that He was not in John's baptism . . . ' (Zondervan NASB Study Bible, p. 1576) |
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Why did Jesus have to beborn of a virgin |
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Bible general Archive 1
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I'd like to add that the blood of the mother never enters the blood stream of the fetus, but is imparted through the sperm of the father. Since "the life of the flesh is in the blood," as in Leviticus 17:11, the sinlessness of Christ was maintained by no human man having a part in the conception. The true Father was God through the Holy Spirit. Thus there was a sinless nature passed on to the Christ. The virgin birth was necessary to this fact. |
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Does Jesus' name satisfy Matt 28:19? |
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Acts 2:38
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Does it not seem that the "fuller" formula does not call upon the name of Jesus? Col 3:17 says '...do all in the name of the Lord Jesus...' Fuller seems neuter, and TV agrees. Father-Son-Holy Spirit is not metioned after Christ's resurrection, But Jesus' name invoked often. Though brief, Jesus' name seems powerful, and apparently satisfies Jesus' command in Matthew. |
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Can a believer lose his salvation? |
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Luke 8:13
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How does a "saved" person "renounce" his salvation? It's not common for a saved person to blaspheme the Holy Spirit, is it? If a "saved" person renounced his salvation, it would only demonstrate that he had never been saved to begin with. Since when does the omnipotent Jesus save someone only to have them cast off what He has predetermined to do for them since the beginning of time?
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Take Your Holy Spirit from me? |
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Ps 51:11
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THE HEBREW WORD USED HERE IS VERY CLEAR.Qodesh AND MEANS DONT REMOVE YOUR SACREDNESS , OR YOUR CLEANSING POWER FROM ME.WE KNOW THAT WE ONLY CAN DO NOTHING OF OURSELVES BUT NEED HIM TO DO THAT WHICH IS GOOD.IT IS HIS HOLY SPIRIT THAT MAKES US CLEAN NOT OURS.AS WE SEE IN VERSE 10 ONLY HE CAN GIVE A NEW HEART.VERSE 11 HE DOSENT ASK FOR HIS SALVATION ONLY A NEW ATTITUDE VERSE 12 DAVID ASKED FOR THE JOY OF HIS SALVATION BACK NOT HIS SALVATION. IF THE LORD TOOK HIS SPIRIT FROM US WE WOULD CEASE TO EXIST.DONT KNOW WHAT YOUR FRIEND WAS TALKING ABOUT.HOPE THIS HELPS LOVE YOUR BROTHER IN CHRIST RC.SCROLL |
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Predetermined or Free Will |
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Luke 8:13
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"Election is the act of God whereby in eternity past He chose those who will be saved. Election is unconditional, because it does not depend on anything outside of God, such as good works or foreseen faith (Romans 9:16). This doctrine is repeatedly taught in the Bible, and is also demanded by our knowledge of God. . . .
No sinner can ever make the first move in the salvation process. This is what Jesus meant in John 6:44, when He said, "No one can come to Me, unless the Father who sent Me draws him."
. . . Ephesians 1:4-5,11 reads, "Just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before Him. In love He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the kind intention of His will . . . also we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to His purpose who works all things after the counsel of His will." . . . (www.gty.org(slash)IssuesandAnswers(slash)archive(slash) See this website for more information on the Bible doctrine of election. |
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Does Jesus' name satisfy Matt 28:19? |
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Acts 2:38
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What follows may not entirely answer all that you asked in your question, but it does address some of the issues raised. Matthew 28:19 "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit." In this verse JESUS HIMSELF commands the disciples to baptize "in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit." . . . It is misleading to say "Father-Son-Holy Spirit is not metioned after Christ's resurrection. Perhaps not that exact phrase, but see such passages as 2 Cor 13:14 where the Lord Jesus Christ, God, and the Holy Spirit are most definitely MENTIONED. . . . Moreover, in the New Testament after the book of Acts rarely is Christ referred to as merely Jesus. The majority of times that His name is mentioned, He is called Christ, Jesus Christ or Christ Jesus. . . . It should be noted that the name of Jesus is not a magic word to get whatever we want. 'To ask in Jesus' "name" does not mean to tack such an expression on the end of a prayer as a mere formula. It means: 1) the believer's prayer should be for His purposes and kingdom and not selfish reasons.' (MacArthur Study Bible, p. 1613) |
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How do you then interpret the verses... |
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Luke 8:13
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How do you then interpret the verses I listed (and the many others) that talk about "our choice"? I've talked to other Calvinists and they all ignore the verses about our choice in the Bible and quote out a few verses that can be interpreted to fit their needs. The "Free Will" theory holds up throughout the Bible while the "Predestined" theory holds up only in a few parts of the Bible and each of these parts can also be interpreted using the "Free Will" theory.
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You mentioned John 6:44. I agree that no sinner can make the first move in the salvation process. Fortunately, God has already made the first move through Jesus. It's now up to us to accept this. Also, if you put John 6:44 in context and read the entire section, you'll see a whole different meaning. John 6:38-40 - tells us that Jesus is sent to do the Father's will which is that EVERYONE who looks to the Son and believes in him shall have eternal life. John 6:44 in simply saying that no one is going to Heaven unless God Allows it. God wants everyone to be saved (this is backed up by other verses I'll supply if needed). John 6:45 "...EVERYONE who listens to the Father and learns from him comes to me." It doesn't say "only those I choose will come to me" John 6:47 "I tell you the truth, he who believes has everlasting life." John 6:51 "...This bread is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world." He's saying that he will give his life for the world, not a elect group in the world.
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Eph 1:4-5,11. Again, put it in context. God predestined us as a whole not a group to have the opportunity to be saved. When it talks about us being predestined for foreknew, it's talking about God's plan - that through Jesus we can be saved. When it talks about the Elect, that's simply another way to talk about the people that have accepted Jesus. Today, we use the terms Christian, born-again, believers, etc... Back to Ephesians, at the end of chapter 1, Paul tells them that they were included in Christ when they heard the word of truth, the gospel of their salvation. In other words, when they heard about Jesus, they were included in God's plan. Paul next states that "Having believed, you were marked in him with a seal, the promised Holy Spirit,..." Notice the "Having believed" -- this implies that they had a choice to believe or not.
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A couple other question to ponder: If God chooses only some people to be saved and not others and we have no control over that then why did Adam and Eve eat the fruit? Why did God flood the world to remove all the evil people? Why did Jesus have to die for our sins? If God decides alone who will and will not go to Heaven, why did these things (and others) happen? But if God wants everyone to be saved, but through his great love allows us to make the choice, then these things are easily explained. |
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Would you please give scripture evidence |
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1 Cor 13:12
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An indication of continuity between our present bodies and the bodies that we will have is seen in the fact that those believers who remain alive on the day Christ returns will "be changed" - yet their bodies will not be replaced: 1 Cor. 15:51-53.
Jesus says that people will come from East and West and "sit at the table with Abraham, Issac, and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven": Matt. 8:11.
Matthew also tells us that when Jesus died, "the tombs also were opened, and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised,and coming out of the tombs after his resurrection they went into the holy city and appeared to many": Matt. 27:52-53. The fact that these people's actual bodies were raised, and the fact that they appeared to many in Jerusalem,indicates again that there was some continuity between their dead bodies that were in the graves and the bodies that were raised up. Since they came out of the tombs "after his resurrection" we may assume that these also were saints who had recieved resurrection bodies as a kind of foretaste of the final day of glorification when Christ returns. The fact that these people "appeared to many" suggests that they were recognizable - that the people knew who they were.
The evidence is suggestive rather than conclusive, yet it points in the direction of continuity between the body that existed before the resurrection and the one that existed after it. When Elijah appears on the Mount he is recognised. Also significant continuity between Jesus' body before and after the resurrection is seen in the fact that even the nail prints in his hands and feet and the wound in his side remained in his resurrection body. John 20:20, 27. |
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records of unlawful entry into veil? |
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2 Chronicles
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Are there any records of men unlawfully entering the Holy of Holies in the tabernacle? If so, who and where is it documented in the Bible? |
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records of unlawful entry into veil? |
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2 Chronicles
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2 Chronicles 36 talks about the Babylonians ransacking the House of the Lord. |
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Should Paul haver gone to Jerusalem? |
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Acts
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How do we know Paul was crrying a message from God? Jesus had told him to flee from Jerusalem but he insisted on returning. Was he bound by his own spirit to go there or the Holy Spirit? It's not as simple as it looks! |
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How do you then interpret the verses... |
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Luke 8:13
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I want to thank you for the dialogue we've been having. I do appreciate your views and I hope I can be of some help. Of course, the Calvinism vs. Arianism debate has been raging for centuries. It is said that every Christian believes in Election; but not every Christian defines Election in the same way. Because of the length of my answer, I will send this in 2 parts.
. . . WHAT DOES THE BIBLE TEACH ABOUT ELECTION?
Election is the act of God whereby in eternity past He chose those who will be saved. Election is unconditional, because it does not depend on anything outside of God, such as good works or foreseen faith (Romans 9:16). This doctrine is repeatedly taught in the Bible, and is also demanded by our knowledge of God. To begin with, let's look at the biblical evidence.
. . . The Bible says prior to salvation, all people are dead in sin-- spiritually dead (Ephesians 2:1-3). In this state of death, the sinner is utterly unable to respond to any spiritual stimulus and therefore unable to love God, obey Him, or please Him in any way. Scripture says the mind of every unbeliever "is hostile toward God; for it does not subject itself to the law of God, for it is not even able to do so; and those who are in the flesh cannot please God" (Romans 8:7-8, emphasis added). That describes a state of total hopelessness: spiritual death.
. . . The effect of all this is that no sinner can ever make the first move in the salvation process. This is what Jesus meant in John 6:44, when He said, "No one can come to Me, unless the Father who sent Me draws him."
. . . This is also why the Bible repeatedly stresses that salvation is wholly God's work. In Acts 13:48 we read, "And when the Gentiles heard this, they began rejoicing and glorifying the word of the Lord; and as many as had been appointed to eternal life believed."
. . . Acts 16 tells us that Lydia was saved when, " . . . the Lord opened her heart to respond to the things spoken by Paul."
. . . Romans 8:29-30 states, "For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the first-born among many brethren; and whom He predestined, these He also called; and whom He called, these He also justified; and whom He justified, these He also glorified."
. . . Ephesians 1:4-5,11 reads, "Just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before Him. In love He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the kind intention of His will . . . also we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to His purpose who works all things after the counsel of His will."
. . . Ephesians 2:8 suggests that even our faith is a gift from God.
In 2 Thessalonians 2:13, the apostle Paul tells his readers, "God has chosen you from the beginning for salvation."
. . . Second Timothy 1:9 informs us that God "has saved us, and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace which was granted us in Christ Jesus from all eternity."
. . . (article by John MacArthur at www.gty.org - listed in Issues and Answers archives) To be continued in next message.
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Just as if I had never sinned? |
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1 Cor 6:11
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Dear brother or sister JVH0212, I well understand the point of your answer. However, I am not sure if that was the question. I have asked load to clarify if he or she was asking about the future or the present. I am aware that Balaam could not curse Israel because they were righteous in God's sight. However, God Himself spoke through the prophets of Israel's constant sin and faithlessness. Perhaps if we call sin sin, we can be more effective in battling against it. As one saved by grace through faith, I hope fervently for His coming to complete salvation and resurrection. In the meantime, I will continue to run the race, embracing the ongoing grace to repent and the everyday cleansing power of the Holy Spirit. |
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