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  Who is God referring to?      
Gen 1:26
  I have learned that often kings refer to themselves in a plural way. The word for God in Hebrew (Elohim) is plural, so the statement likely indicates that God was taking counsel with himself. This may also hint at the mystery of the Trinity - in the unity of God there is plurality. Some believe this describes God speaking to his heavenly court of angels.
  Was everything really created in 7 days      
Gen 1:2
  Actually 6 days, the Bible says in
(Gen 1:1 KJV) In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.

The first chapter of Genesis tells us day by day what was made, ending each time with and the evening and the morning was (x) for the number of the day.

God did not give a name to each of the first 6 days only a number, he did give a name to the 7th day he named it the Sabbath day.

Now last verse in Ch. 1
(Gen 1:31 KJV) And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, it was very good. And the evening and the morning were the sixth day.

Notice it says God saw every thing that he had made, and it was VERY GOOD…

(Gen 2:1 KJV) Thus the heavens and the earth were finished, and all the host of them.

(Gen 2:2 KJV) And on the seventh day God ended his work which he had made; and he rested on the seventh day from all his work which he had made.
(Gen 2:3 KJV) And God blessed the seventh day, and sanctified it: because that in it he had rested from all his work which God created and made.



  WHAT DOES JESUS MEAN BY THIS VERSE      
John 14:6
  wHAT DOES JESUS MEAN BY THE WAY, COULD HE BE REFERRING TO THE WAY TO HAPPINESS OR THE WAY TO HEAVEN
  How old is the earth scripturally?      
Gen 1:1
  There is no solid conclusive evidence in scripture to give a date of how old the earth is. It is possible to calculate the ages of Adam and his discendants and GUESS the date, but this is not conclusive either. Many have suggested that the earth could be as old as evolutionist say, justifying that answer by saying God could have created it that way or a day with God is like a thousand years to us. This dont stand either if you understand the Bible as Gods perfect Word...inerrant and infalliable, God Breathed...It says that a day is a day, morning and night and it was a day...period. Nothing in the text...which is where our answers have to come from...says that we should belive otherwise. Lets not limit God by suggesting that He would NEED billions of years to create the world and all that is in it. As far as scientist dating the earth by carbon dating and such, note...conclusively, one must first date an object that has a known age to be sure that your dating method is accurate. I dont think we have and witnesses to items billions of years ago. How can they be sure the date is correct. Is it accurate plus or minus a few million years. Think about it, a few million is a huge amount of time to be off. Also note... It does not require millions of years to form land masses like the Grand Canyon. Scientist know for certain that massive gorges were formed in just hours when Mt St. Helens erupted. Evolutionist have a real hard time with events like a world wide flood. It messes up the Geological column...ie. fossils are stirred up and settle in a ramdon order, not in the approiate strata layer like they need... For a really good argument to give and evolutionist, ask they How do scientist date fossils? They say by the strata layer that they are found in...Then ask How do you date the strata layer then? The answer is in any Encyclopedia...strata is dated by the fossils found in them! This is a circular argument. These types of Evolution break downs are limitless. Consult the Institute for Creation Research, ..ICR.. on the web for more. By the way, The THEORY of evolution is not even a theory. The scientific method requires a theory be something that is testable and retestable with reasonably close results...evolution is not testable first of all and definately not retestable. It is only a hypothisis or maybe better said a scientific guess. Last, as you try to find out how old the earth is, keep these thoughts in mind...1.God does not need millions of years to create. 2.In the beginning God created the heavens and earth...and not once after that did He feel it necessary to prove it to anyone, nor do we bare that burden. 3.ONLY, evolutionist NEED the earth to be a certain age, and that is very, very old. Else their guess would not have enough time to make all of those mutations. How old is the earth? Im not really sure. Not billions for certain! The Biblical guess is somewhere between 6 to 15 thousand years. My answer is ..it is not as important as many think.. Did God create all of it just the way He said He did?...is a more improtant question. If you dont believe Genesis chapters 1-11 to be totally accurate and literal, then the rest of your Bible is of no use to you. God does not need a human justification or scientific explanation of His ability to create.
  Interpretation of Bible teachings      
James 5:14
  Please understand that a complete answer to this question would be quite long. Take this information and consider it while you search for Gods answer...and He will definately have one.

1. Most importantly, the idea that scripture has many different interpretations is not true. Hear me out. Yes there is a Priesthood of believers and we do not need to consult anyone but God to understand His Word. But this is not a license to interpret scripture in whatever way best fits our lives or beliefs. God wrote the Bible...end of discussion. To believe that it was a product of man and it may have mistakes is wrong. If it has one mistake, the whole of it can not be trusted. It may have a second mistake and we dont know where it is, so can you trust any of it? What if the part about how to enter into heaven has an error... It is either God Breathed or its not. See 1 Peter 1:20. The Bible must be interpreted with this question settled in your heart. God had only ONE meaning when He wrote it. Scripture has an abundance of Applications to our lives today...it is Living and active, and able..., but only one meaning. Try not to forget that God chose a certain generation and people group to unveil Himself to for the purpose of recording scripture, and that is not us. The epistle to the Corinthians does not begin with greetings to the 21st century Christians in So in So USA. It was to them in their time and their cultural setting. It does apply to us, but it was written to them.

2. Anointing ones head with oil may not mean what you think. In the cultural setting, way back in the time of Moses, God gave very discriptive laws about treatment of the sick. It was the priest who one went to when they were sick and they told them what requirement God gave for that situation. There were no doctors, only priest...elders. For many of the wounds then, a bandage soaked in wine and olive oil was appropriate to heal it. It was the elders responsibility to make sure you took care of the wound properly. This was the case later in the lives of mostly Jewish converts to Christianity in the time James wrote his epistle. In other words, the elders made sure you took their medicine. The wording Anoint your head with oil would have a profoundly different meaning to someone in the first century than it does today. This answer can be studied much more, especially using the Greek language it was written in which gives more details as to its meaning...ie.does the Greek word in place of head in English mean the literal head or does it have a broader meaning for the whole body...the head is control of the entire body as is with Christ being the head of the Church...

Consider this limited answer and go back to the text and look again.

Remember, if you hold that this taking to the elders and anointing someones head with some oil could lead poeple to believe doctors and medicine is not necessary. Maybe all that anointing ones head with oil does is get their hair all greesy!

Hope I helped some...
  Who is God referring to?      
Gen 1:26
  Genesis 5:1 This is the written account of Adam's line. When God created man, he made him in the likeness of God. 2 He created them male and female and blessed them. And when they were created, he called them "man. " (NIV) ...................
Reading this verse rules out the idea that man has been created in the image of God and his heavenly court of angels. It does show us that man is created from the image of God alone, so there we have a plural reference of God being two or even three persons. I believe this is one of many supporting arguements for the Trinity of God.
  opinion in NET Bible (cf. www.bible.org)      
Gen 1:26
  I looked up any referance I could find about the word "Majesty", the closest I could come up with is the word "Exalted" in "Thompson's Chain Topics". try to look up the following:
Christ

His Exaltation, to Heavenly Places
Mark 16:19
Luke 22:69
Acts 2:36
Acts 5:31
Eph 1:20
Php 2:9
Heb 1:9
1Pe 3:22
Rev 5:12
SEE Christ; Exaltation of
SEE Christ; Head of the Church
SEE Christ; Honoured

God
Ps 21:13
Ps 47:9
Ps 57:11
Ps 99:5
Ps 108:5
Ps 118:28
Isa 12:4
Isa 25:1
Isa 33:5
SEE Honour
SEE Glorifying God

Israel

Exalted to a High Position when obedient. A type of the true church.
Deut 26:19
Deut 28:1
Deut 28:13
Deut 32:13
Deut 33:29
Isa 14:2
Isa 45:14
Isa 49:23
Isa 60:14
SEE God's; People

Under the Special protection of Jehovah.
SEE Promises, Divine; Of Protection

Saints

Of the Saints promised
Ps 91:14
Isa 33:16
Isa 58:14
Dan 12:3
Hab 3:19
Mat 19:28
Luke 19:17
1Co 6:2
Rev 3:21
Rev 5:10
Rev 11:12
SEE Reward
SEE Crowns; Spiritual
SEE Eternal; Glory
SEE Second Coming of Christ

(Thompson's Chain Topics, "Exalted")

I don't know if this will be of any help to you, but give it a try. :-)
  How long were years of Noah's life?      
OT general
  There's no reason to assume the length of a year was any different, although this forces the question of how Noah (and virtually everyone who is mentioned as living before him) could have lived such (incredibly?) long lives. The most common (and reasonable) explanation I know of is that the earth's climate was completely changed by the flood.
- Gen. 1:6-9 indicates that there were 2 "waters" associated with the earth, which were separated by air. Gen. 7:11-12 indicates that BOTH the springs from under the earth and the "gates of heaven" were poured out onto the earth. If these "waters above the earth" (or the "firmament" as they are often referred to) were a thick water-like protection of vapor (perhaps similar to a thick ozone with some kind of gaseous barrier holding it in place over the earth), it would function as a sort of terrarium, keeping out the harmful solar rays that significantly increase aging.
- Increasing disease no doubt affected lifespans, as well, but there is an extreme drop in age immediately after the flood, which is most reasonably attributable to a major change in climate caused by the flood.
- There is no mention of rain falling prior to the flood, and it's very possible that the method of watering described in the Garden of Eden in Genesis 2:5-6, 10 (water flowing out from underground and dew covering the surface) remained until the time of the flood.
  Why "son of man"?      
Dan 8:17
  The phrase identifies Him with humanity (Heb 2:14-18) and with the heavenly Son of Man (Da 7:13-14).
  son of the gods      
Dan 3:25
  Bear in mind that in this verse Nebuchadnezzar is the one speaking. "Nebuchadnezzar was speaking as a pagan polytheist and was content to conceive of the fourth figure as a lesser heavenly being (v.28) sent by the all-powerful God of the Israelites." (Zondervan NASB Study Bible, p. 1232)

"The king seemed only to have known that the fourth person was a heavenly being. He called him a son of the gods (a pagan reference to one who appeared supernatural) and an 'Angel' (v. 28)..." (MacArthur Study Bible, p. 1232)
  Can a believer lose his salvation?      
Luke 8:13
  If one is truly saved, he cannot lose his salvation. Read these words of assurance:

"But I said to you that you have seen Me, and yet do not believe.
All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out.
For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.
This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day."
(John 6:36-39)
  Will we recognize loved ones in heaven?      
1 Cor 13:12
  " . . . now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known." (1 Cor 13:12b) Will we recognize and be reunited with our loved ones in heaven?
  HOW COULD JESUS BE A DESCENDANT OF DAVID      
Bible general Archive 1
  Jesus, the Messiah, Deliverer, Son of God and King of Kings, was concieved by the Holy Spirit and born of a virgin. The fullness of the Godhead dwelt bodily in Jesus while he was in every way a human being. Jesus was not fathered by any man, since no man had been with Mary (Luke 1:34). And Joseph, Mary's betrothed husband, at first struggled to accept this fact but later accepted it (Matthew 1:19-25). But Jesus had to be 'brought up' or 'brought forth' from the line of David; he Himself had to find his earthly beginnings and achieve his earthly ministry while being of the Kingly heritage of David. God's promise to David is ultimately fulfilled by Jesus as David's 'descendant' of whom it was promised in 2 Samuel 7:16, and in the line of Judah in Genesis 49:10: both fulfilled by the Lord Jesus Christ! And Luke 3:23-38 shows the 'direct line' genealogy from Mary, the vessel in which God used to deliver His only Son into this world, all the way down to David, and it even goes from David to Adam! And if you look in Matthew 1:1-17, you can see how Joseph, who was the step-father of Jesus, was also in the Kingly heritage, being a descendant of King David. So Jesus was in fact a descendant of David as well as being part of the royal heritage as promised by God. Now you ask: "What do you think about the Christ, whose son is He?" (Matthew 22:41-46) They said to Him, "The son of David." Jesus said to them, "Then how does David in the Spirit call him 'Lord', saying, "THE LORD SAID TO MY LORD, 'SIT AT MY RIGHT HAND, UNTIL I PUT YOUR ENEMIES BENEATH YOUR FEET' '? If David then calls him 'Lord', how is He his son?" Very good question! Here is the answer: Jesus was a descendant of David while he dwelt upon this earth, but He has always been and has always existed as God. He was never created by God but has always existed as part of the Godhead with His Father and the Holy Spirit. In this passage (Matthew 22:41-46), David called upon the Lord during his life, even the Lord Jesus! Now he says, 'THE LORD SAID TO MY LORD'.. This is God the Father in heaven saying to God the Son, "SIT AT MY RIGHT HAND UNTIL I PUT YOUR ENEMIES BENEATH YOUR FEET." So God the Son ascended into heaven to assume His Lordship at God the Father's right hand until the time when Jesus will return to earth in the Second Coming of Christ. So this is how the Lord Jesus is David's Lord (whom David called upon) and also David's son, or descendant, at the same time. I hope that this explanation helps. I use the New American Standard Bible ('95), which is my very favorite translation!
  HOW COULD JESUS BE A DESCENDANT OF DAVID      
Bible general Archive 1
  Jesus was the one who created the heavens and the earth,A.K.A Jehovah the Lord.when He became flesh, He was born of the virgin Mary who is a decendant of David.Hence; The Lord said unto my Lord sit at my right hand until I make your enemies your footstool. If david called Him Lord then how is He his son?
  Will we recognize loved ones in heaven?      
1 Cor 13:12
  Yes is the short answer. Scripture is quite clear that we will recoqnise those we knew on earth. Equally, the bible is clear that although we will know loved ones we will not pick up where we left off in this life. We are told that none will be given in marriage in heaven.
  heaven or resurrection of the dead      
Not Specified
  How does one explain the apparent contradiction between scripture that states those in Christ will rise first, referring to resurrection, and the popular Christian teaching that when a Christian dies, he or she is immediately in the presence of Christ heaven?
  heaven or resurrection of the dead      
Is 26:19
  How does one explain the apparent contradiction between scripture that states those in Christ will rise first, referring to resurrection, and the popular Christian teaching that when a Christian dies, he or she is immediately in the presence of Christ heaven?
  heaven or resurrection of the dead      
Is 26:19
  Dana, When our flesh dies, our spirit-soul is with the Lord in heaven, not yet resurrected. (and not sleeping) When Christ returns, God will resurrect us, reunite body-soul-spirit
  God's promises are in Christ      
Bible general Archive 1
  It is stated in the bible(NT) that all authority in heaven and on earth has been given unto our lord and savior Jesus Christ.And also,God has promised to watch over His word.We discover from the book of revelation and also from the gospel according to john that Jesus Christ is God's spoken word.In the same vein, we are told that God's promise was to Abraham and his seed and we are told in the bible that this seed is Christ Jesus.In this case, it is clear that we can only partake of God's promise if we are in Christ.Also when we embrace Christ, that is to say, if Christ lives in us as individuals,God will also watch over us and our affairs.

God bless!
  Predetermined or Free Will      
Luke 8:13
  I have a couple questions with what you stated.

1: Where does it say that Jesus is omnipotent? Jesus says in Mat 24:36 "No one knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven nor the Son, but only the Father." If Jesus were omnipotent as you say, He would have known the day and hour.

2: God has predetermined that his plan of salvation will be carried out. This does not mean that he has predetermined who will and will not be saved. God wants everyone to be saved (If you need several versus to back this up, let me know). He provided the means for that to happen through the death and ressurection of Jesus. It is our choice whether to accept his Gift or not. From the very beginning, Adam and Eve made the choice to eat from the tree of knowledge even after God told them not to. In Josh 24:15, "But if serving the LORD seems undesirable to you, then choose for yourselves this day whom you will serve... In 1 Kings 18:21, the worshippers at Mt. Carmel were invited to choose that day whom they would serve, either Baal or God. In Isaiah 5:20, the people were certainly capable of choosing between good and evil. Why are we given the warning in Matt 7:15 ("Watch out for false prophets. They come to you in sheep's clothing, but inwardly they are ferocious wolves.") if we were predestined to be saved or not? Matt 7:21 says that only the people that choose to do the will of God will enter Heaven. Luke 13:3 tells us that unless we repent (our choice), we will perish. Matt 19:23-24 says that it is harder for a rich man to enter the Kingdom of God. If we were predetermined, then wouldn't it be just as easy (or hard)? John 3:16 ...whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. In John 7: 17-18, If anyone chooses to do God's will, he will find out whether my teaching comes from God or whether I speak on my own. He who speaks on his own does so to gain honor for himself... In Romans 1:17-32 is clear that man has chosen evil and is not predetermined to do so. Heb 9:27-28 tells us that we are to face judgment when we die. What would be the need of a judgment if we were predetermined. There are many more versus that talk about our choice which I will post if needed.

3: To renounce your salvation would be to turn your back on God, to no longer believe or accept his Gift. To no longer follow the teachings of Christ. Granted, you could always say that person wasn't really saved then. But then what would you say would have happened to that person if they died prior to that drastic change? And if you say that the person must not have been chosen by God to be saved and was only fooling themselves when they truely believed in Christ and thought they were saved then can you say for sure that anyone is saved? Did Jesus die for everyone or just for a select few? I can show you several versus that show that He died for all, can you show one that says otherwise? Then if Jesus did die for all, how could there be some that God predetermined not to be save?
  Who were the son's of God in Job?      
Gen 6:4
  The "sons of God" who were the descendants of Seth were righteous people. The "sons of God" in Job 1:6 also refers to righteous people (people who worshiped God.) Job may have been among "the sons of God" who came to present themselves before Him since God asks Satan about Job in the context of this passage. The word translated son in verse 6 is the same word that is used in reference to Job's sons in verse 5. The NIV's rendering is not a literal translation. If the word is to be translated "angels" in verse 6, why not in verse 5? The NRSV renders it "heavenly beings" but the ASV, NKJV and KJV render it literally as "sons." The NRSV's rendering is not a literal translation either. I see no reason to translate this word with "angels" or "heavenly beings." The NIV NRSV's rendering seems to be another example of an "interpretation" (what the translator thought the context required) rather than a translation. Do you know of any other passage than those in Job where the NIV translates this word other than "children" or "sons"? As to the "giants" or Nephilim, the word literally means "a bully or tyrant" according to Strong's dictionary. I can see no reason to believe that the "sons of God" in Job 1:6 have anything to do with the "Nephilim" in Gen. 6:4.
  How do you then interpret the verses...      
Luke 8:13
  How do you then interpret the verses I listed (and the many others) that talk about "our choice"? I've talked to other Calvinists and they all ignore the verses about our choice in the Bible and quote out a few verses that can be interpreted to fit their needs. The "Free Will" theory holds up throughout the Bible while the "Predestined" theory holds up only in a few parts of the Bible and each of these parts can also be interpreted using the "Free Will" theory.
----------------------------------
You mentioned John 6:44. I agree that no sinner can make the first move in the salvation process. Fortunately, God has already made the first move through Jesus. It's now up to us to accept this. Also, if you put John 6:44 in context and read the entire section, you'll see a whole different meaning. John 6:38-40 - tells us that Jesus is sent to do the Father's will which is that EVERYONE who looks to the Son and believes in him shall have eternal life. John 6:44 in simply saying that no one is going to Heaven unless God Allows it. God wants everyone to be saved (this is backed up by other verses I'll supply if needed). John 6:45 "...EVERYONE who listens to the Father and learns from him comes to me." It doesn't say "only those I choose will come to me" John 6:47 "I tell you the truth, he who believes has everlasting life." John 6:51 "...This bread is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world." He's saying that he will give his life for the world, not a elect group in the world.
-------------------------------------
Eph 1:4-5,11. Again, put it in context. God predestined us as a whole not a group to have the opportunity to be saved. When it talks about us being predestined for foreknew, it's talking about God's plan - that through Jesus we can be saved. When it talks about the Elect, that's simply another way to talk about the people that have accepted Jesus. Today, we use the terms Christian, born-again, believers, etc... Back to Ephesians, at the end of chapter 1, Paul tells them that they were included in Christ when they heard the word of truth, the gospel of their salvation. In other words, when they heard about Jesus, they were included in God's plan. Paul next states that "Having believed, you were marked in him with a seal, the promised Holy Spirit,..." Notice the "Having believed" -- this implies that they had a choice to believe or not.
------------------------------------
A couple other question to ponder: If God chooses only some people to be saved and not others and we have no control over that then why did Adam and Eve eat the fruit? Why did God flood the world to remove all the evil people? Why did Jesus have to die for our sins? If God decides alone who will and will not go to Heaven, why did these things (and others) happen? But if God wants everyone to be saved, but through his great love allows us to make the choice, then these things are easily explained.
  Can a divorced person remarry?      
1 Cor 7:15
  Yes...a divorced person can remarry. The bible says that anyone who divorces for any reason then adultry will commit adultry if they remarry. But...the bible also teaches that if we confess our sins we are forgiven by our loving Savior Jesus Christ. I myself am divorced and I believe that Jesus has forgiven my sin and no human has the right to judge me. I am covered by the Grace of my Heavenly Father!
  Is "Paradise" the same as heaven?      
Luke 23:43
  Is "Paradise" the same as heaven?
  Is "Paradise" the same as heaven?      
Luke 23:43
  I believe that's what Jesus was referring to. You could argue that Jesus didn't go to Heaven that day but if you believe in the Trinity then Jesus could have been talking about being in Paradise (Heaven) with God. If you don't believe in the Trinity (or don't like that explanation) then you could intrepret his statement that because he chose to believe in Jesus that day, he will be with him in Heaven. If you believe that time doesn't exist in Heaven like it does here on earth (a year is like a thousand years) then by saying today doesn't really mean much to God but it would to the dying person on the cross.
  Is "Paradise" the same as heaven?      
Luke 23:43
  Paradise is the same as heaven. Rev. 2:7b "...which is in the midst of paradise of God." 2 Cor. 12:4 ; Luke 23:43 " And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise." Therefore I submit that these verses declare that Paradise is the same place as Heaven.
  Would you please give scripture evidence      
1 Cor 13:12
  An indication of continuity between our present bodies and the bodies that we will have is seen in the fact that those believers who remain alive on the day Christ returns will "be changed" - yet their bodies will not be replaced: 1 Cor. 15:51-53.
Jesus says that people will come from East and West and "sit at the table with Abraham, Issac, and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven": Matt. 8:11.
Matthew also tells us that when Jesus died, "the tombs also were opened, and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised,and coming out of the tombs after his resurrection they went into the holy city and appeared to many": Matt. 27:52-53. The fact that these people's actual bodies were raised, and the fact that they appeared to many in Jerusalem,indicates again that there was some continuity between their dead bodies that were in the graves and the bodies that were raised up. Since they came out of the tombs "after his resurrection" we may assume that these also were saints who had recieved resurrection bodies as a kind of foretaste of the final day of glorification when Christ returns. The fact that these people "appeared to many" suggests that they were recognizable - that the people knew who they were.
The evidence is suggestive rather than conclusive, yet it points in the direction of continuity between the body that existed before the resurrection and the one that existed after it. When Elijah appears on the Mount he is recognised. Also significant continuity between Jesus' body before and after the resurrection is seen in the fact that even the nail prints in his hands and feet and the wound in his side remained in his resurrection body. John 20:20, 27.
  Is "Paradise" the same as heaven?      
Luke 23:43
  Paradise is not the same as heaven. Paradise was an underground compartment that was a place of comfort called Abraham's bosom (Luke 16:22) where all the Old Testament saints who had accepted the Lord were kept after death, awaiting the resurrection of Jesus Christ. Across from paradise was a place of agony, and between the two, God placed a chasm that was fixed so one could not pass over to the other. The good news is that when Jesus Christ died and was buried in the heart of the earth, he wasn't just lying there. He was conqueroring sin and death so that you and I may live with him in heaven for eternity. And when it was finished, I can just imagine Jesus handing the saints the keys to the kingdom of heaven just as he described to Peter in Matt. 16:19.
I suppose the theif on the cross didn't have a very long stay in paradise.

Revelation 1:18 says that Jesus Christ still holds the keys of death and Hades. Eventually, these people will be thrown into the lake of fire.

Say yes to Jesus Christ. He is a free gift. God is a God of love, but he is also just.
  Do you believe once save, always saved.      
Luke 23:43
  I'm not saying that everytime you sin you are no longer saved. What I said is that if a person decided to totally give up believing in God and renounce their belief in Jesus and go out and do horrible and unmentionable things with no feelings of remorse then I believe that person would no longer be welcome in the Kingdom of Heaven (unless later they again truely repent). I'm not saying that this would be a common thing for a believer to do just that it could happen.
 
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