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verse referring to grace ,stone |
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Zech 4:7
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what is the verse referring to about grace and the stone? |
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verse referring to grace ,stone |
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Zech 4:7
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My thoughts...The "mountain" is probably an impossible task that can only be accomplished by God's Spirit.
The "top stone" is the final touch to the rebuilt temple when it is completed.
"Grace, grace to it" is the enabling of Zerubbabel by God's Spirit as an expression of His grace. Hope this helps. |
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Why did God kill Uzzah? |
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2 Sam 6:6
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The inverse of this question is why didn't God kill those who broke his command and had the ark carried by oxen instead of the men who were assigned the task.
In this passage, although God exercises judgement on the sin of Uzzah, it must be clearly noted that he exercised grace concerning the sins of the others present. "...for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God." (Romans 3:23) "For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord. (Romans 6:23) Unfortunately many find themselves trapped into thinking that the Old Testament teaches judgement, and the New Testament teaches grace. This is an example of grace from the Old Testament. |
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Just as if I had never sinned? |
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1 Cor 6:11
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'The term [justified]describes what happens when someone believes in Christ as his Savior: From the negative viewpoint, God declares the person to be not guilty; from the positive viewpoint, He declares him to be righteous. He cancels the guilt of the person's sin and credits righteousness to him.' (Zondervan NASB Study Bible, p. 1639) All this being true, it would be accurate to regard justification as a state in which my standing in the eyes of God is "just as if I had never sinned." Of course, justification by faith alone (Rom 3:28) does not give the justified one license to sin (Romans 6). The apostle Paul was falsely accused of teaching grace as a license to sin, as are many today who understand that SALVATION IS BY GRACE ALONE THROUGH FAITH ALONE IN CHRIST ALONE. "Salvation is conditioned solely on faith in Jesus Christ. Nearly 200 times faith, or belief, is stated as the single condition [for salvation] in the New Testament." (Ryrie Study Bible, Moody Press) Guilty feelings or memories have nothing to do with it; the fact remains "we are justified by faith apart from works of the Law" (Rom 3:28 NIV). |
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Can a divorced person remarry? |
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1 Cor 7:15
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Yes...a divorced person can remarry. The bible says that anyone who divorces for any reason then adultry will commit adultry if they remarry. But...the bible also teaches that if we confess our sins we are forgiven by our loving Savior Jesus Christ. I myself am divorced and I believe that Jesus has forgiven my sin and no human has the right to judge me. I am covered by the Grace of my Heavenly Father! |
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How do you then interpret the verses... |
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Luke 8:13
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I want to thank you for the dialogue we've been having. I do appreciate your views and I hope I can be of some help. Of course, the Calvinism vs. Arianism debate has been raging for centuries. It is said that every Christian believes in Election; but not every Christian defines Election in the same way. Because of the length of my answer, I will send this in 2 parts.
. . . WHAT DOES THE BIBLE TEACH ABOUT ELECTION?
Election is the act of God whereby in eternity past He chose those who will be saved. Election is unconditional, because it does not depend on anything outside of God, such as good works or foreseen faith (Romans 9:16). This doctrine is repeatedly taught in the Bible, and is also demanded by our knowledge of God. To begin with, let's look at the biblical evidence.
. . . The Bible says prior to salvation, all people are dead in sin-- spiritually dead (Ephesians 2:1-3). In this state of death, the sinner is utterly unable to respond to any spiritual stimulus and therefore unable to love God, obey Him, or please Him in any way. Scripture says the mind of every unbeliever "is hostile toward God; for it does not subject itself to the law of God, for it is not even able to do so; and those who are in the flesh cannot please God" (Romans 8:7-8, emphasis added). That describes a state of total hopelessness: spiritual death.
. . . The effect of all this is that no sinner can ever make the first move in the salvation process. This is what Jesus meant in John 6:44, when He said, "No one can come to Me, unless the Father who sent Me draws him."
. . . This is also why the Bible repeatedly stresses that salvation is wholly God's work. In Acts 13:48 we read, "And when the Gentiles heard this, they began rejoicing and glorifying the word of the Lord; and as many as had been appointed to eternal life believed."
. . . Acts 16 tells us that Lydia was saved when, " . . . the Lord opened her heart to respond to the things spoken by Paul."
. . . Romans 8:29-30 states, "For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the first-born among many brethren; and whom He predestined, these He also called; and whom He called, these He also justified; and whom He justified, these He also glorified."
. . . Ephesians 1:4-5,11 reads, "Just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before Him. In love He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the kind intention of His will . . . also we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to His purpose who works all things after the counsel of His will."
. . . Ephesians 2:8 suggests that even our faith is a gift from God.
In 2 Thessalonians 2:13, the apostle Paul tells his readers, "God has chosen you from the beginning for salvation."
. . . Second Timothy 1:9 informs us that God "has saved us, and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace which was granted us in Christ Jesus from all eternity."
. . . (article by John MacArthur at www.gty.org - listed in Issues and Answers archives) To be continued in next message.
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How do you then interpret the verses... |
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Luke 8:13
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WHAT DOES THE BIBLE TEACH ABOUT ELECTION? (continued from previous message)
Occasionally someone will suggest that God's election is based on His foreknowledge of certain events. This argument suggests that God simply looks into the future to see who will believe, and He chooses those whom He sees choosing Him. Notice that 1 Peter 1:2 says the elect are chosen "according to the foreknowledge of God the Father," and Romans 8:29 says, "whom He foreknew, He also predestined." And if divine foreknowledge simply means God's knowledge of what will happen in advance, then these arguments may appear to have some weight behind them.
But that is not the biblical meaning of "foreknowledge." When the Bible speaks of God's foreknowledge, it refers to God's establishment of a love relationship with that person. The word "know," in both the Old and New Testament, refers to much more than mere cognitive knowledge of a person. Such passages as Hosea 13:4-5; Amos 3:2 (KJV); and Romans 11:2 clearly indicate this. For example, 1 Peter 1:20 says Christ was "foreknown before the foundation of the world." Surely this means more than that God the Father looked into the future to behold Christ! It means He had an eternal, loving relationship with Him. The same is true of the elect, whom we are told God "foreknew" (Romans 8:29). That means He knew them--he loved them--before the foundation of the world.
If God's choice of the elect is unconditional, does this rule out human responsibility? Paul asks and answers that very question in Romans 9:19-20. He says God's choice of the elect is an act of mercy. Left to themselves, even the elect would persist in sin and be lost, because they are taken from the same fallen lump of clay as the rest of humanity. God alone is responsible for their salvation, but that does not eradicate the responsibility of those who persist in sin and are lost--because they do it willfully, and not under compulsion. They are responsible for their sin, not God.
The Bible affirms human responsibility right alongside the doctrine of divine sovereignty. Moreover, the offer of mercy in the gospel is extended to all alike. Isaiah 55:1 and Revelation 22:17 call "whosoever will" to be saved. Isaiah 45:22 and Acts 17:30 command all men to turn to God, repent and be saved. First Timothy 2:4 and 2 Peter 3:9 tell us that God is not willing that any should perish, but desires that all should be saved. Finally, the Lord Jesus said that, "the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out" (John 6:37).
In summary, we can say that God has had a special love relationship with the elect from all eternity, and on the basis of that love relationship chosen them for salvation. The ultimate question of why God chose some for salvation and left others in their sinful state is one that we, with our finite knowledge, cannot answer. We do know that God's attributes always are in perfect harmony with each other, so that God's sovereignty will always operate in perfect harmony with His goodness, love, wisdom, and justice.
For further study:
John MacArthur, The Love of God (Dallas: Word, 1996).
J. I. Packer, Evangelism and the Sovereignty of God (Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity, 1961).
© 2000 Grace to You
. . . (article by John MacArthur at www.gty.org - listed in Issues and Answers archives) |
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Just as if I had never sinned? |
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1 Cor 6:11
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Dear brother or sister JVH0212, I well understand the point of your answer. However, I am not sure if that was the question. I have asked load to clarify if he or she was asking about the future or the present. I am aware that Balaam could not curse Israel because they were righteous in God's sight. However, God Himself spoke through the prophets of Israel's constant sin and faithlessness. Perhaps if we call sin sin, we can be more effective in battling against it. As one saved by grace through faith, I hope fervently for His coming to complete salvation and resurrection. In the meantime, I will continue to run the race, embracing the ongoing grace to repent and the everyday cleansing power of the Holy Spirit. |
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do we have any free will? |
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Bible general Archive 1
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Yes, we have limited free will. God has His plan and ultimate purposes. But if one chooses to reject God, that person will suffer the consequences. . . . The Bible says that God made hell only for Satan and his angels because it is a true statement. . . .Regarding sinning after we are saved: 1) 1 John 1:8 NASB If we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us. 2) Grace is not a license to sin (Rom 6). 3)Rom 3:28 NASB For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. 4) It is true that one who is truly saved will manifest fruit or proofs of their salvation. BUT the evidences of genuine saving faith are the result, not the cause, of one's salvation. 5) Salvation is a free gift. It is not earned by keeping the law or doing good deeds, although these would be present in the life of a believer. 6) Eph 2:8-9 God's Word version: "God saved you through faith as an act of [grace]. You had nothing to do with it. Being saved is a gift from God. It's not the result of anything you've done, so no one can brag about it." |
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Just as if I had never sinned? |
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1 Cor 6:11
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I have to strongly disagree with your statement: "We of the NT can claim righteousness as an eternal reward of our faith..." . . . Righteousness is imputed to us when we are saved. And we are neither saved nor made righteous "as a reward of our faith." We are saved BY grace THROUGH faith. Ephesians 2:8-9 God's Word Translation: "God saved you through faith as an act of kindness. You had nothing to do with it. Being saved is a gift from God. It's not the result of anything you've done, so no one can brag about it." . . . We are saved by grace alone through faith alone in Christ alone. Our faith does not save us or give us righteousness in the eyes of God. Only the grace provided by the shed blood of Jesus Christ can save us. See Rom 3:28 . . . Eph 2:9 Living Bible "Salvation is not a reward for the good we have done." Moreover, salvation is not a reward for ANYTHING we have done. . . . The only righteousness that we have is the righteousness of Christ Himself, which is IMPUTED (put into) us. Rom 4: 1-8 NASB What then shall we say that Abraham, our forefather according to the flesh, has found? 2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? "ABRAHAM BELIEVED GOD, AND IT WAS CREDITED TO HIM AS RIGHTEOUSNESS." 4 Now to the one who works, his wage is not credited as a favor, but as what is due. 5 But to the one who does not work, but believes in Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is credited as righteousness, 6 just as David also speaks of the blessing on the man to whom God credits righteousness apart from works: 7 "BLESSED ARE THOSE WHOSE LAWLESS DEEDS HAVE BEEN FORGIVEN, AND WHOSE SINS HAVE BEEN COVERED. 8 "BLESSED IS THE MAN WHOSE SIN THE LORD WILL NOT TAKE INTO ACCOUNT."
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Ezekiel 38:15 |
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Ezekiel
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I agree with the other answer, that we can guess all we want who will come from the north, but the truth will be known after it comes to pass. Prophecy is not given so that we know the details before hand, but so that we know that God knows the end from the beginning. 1PE 1:10 "As to this salvation, the prophets who prophesied of the grace that would come to you made careful searches and inquiries" it goes on to say that even they didn't know the details of the things that they were writing about. The passage says from the north. Other passages I have been told tell of Gog and Magog, and Moscow they say comes from the same root as Magog. But I would still caution you not to put any stock in detailed proclamations that go beyond what the scriptures say.
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Is tithing for today? |
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Lev 27:30
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Does God require me to give a tithe of all I earn?
. . . Two kinds of giving are taught consistently throughout Scripture: giving to the government (always compulsory), and giving to God (always voluntary).
. . . The issue has been greatly confused, however, by some who misunderstand the nature of the Old Testament tithes. Tithes were not primarily gifts to God, but taxes for funding the national budget in Israel.
. . . Because Israel was a theocracy, the Levitical priests acted as the civil government. So the Levite's tithe (Leviticus 27:30-33) was a precursor to today's income tax, as was a second annual tithe required by God to fund a national festival (Deuteronomy 14:22-29). Smaller taxes were also imposed on the people by the law (Leviticus 19:9-10; Exodus 23:10-11). So the total giving required of the Israelites was not 10 percent, but well over 20 percent. All that money was used to operate the nation.
. . . All giving apart from that required to run the government was purely voluntary (cf. Exodus 25:2; 1 Chronicles 29:9). Each person gave whatever was in his heart to give; no percentage or amount was specified.
. . . New Testament believers are never commanded to tithe. Matthew 22:15-22 and Romans 13:1-7 tell us about the only required giving in the church age, which is the paying of taxes to the government. . . . Interestingly enough, we in America presently pay between 20 and 30 percent of our income to the government--a figure very similar to the requirement under the theocracy of Israel.
. . . The guideline for our giving to God and His work is found in 2 Corinthians 9:6-7: "Now this I say, he who sows sparingly shall also reap sparingly; and he who sows bountifully shall also reap bountifully. Let each one do just as he has purposed in his heart; not grudgingly or under compulsion; for God loves a cheerful giver."
© 2000 Grace to You
. . . (www.gty.org Click on Issues and Answers. Then click on Previous Topics) . . .
For much more in-depth information on Tithing, including many Scripture references, look up Tithing in Baker's Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology. Baker's Dictionary is available online at bible.crosswalk.com |
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That's an interesting belief. |
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Luke 23:43
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Okay. I have not seen your scripture references on how a true believer can lose his or her salvation. We are saved by Grace not by works. |
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That's an interesting belief. |
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Luke 23:43
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I completely and totaly agree that we are saved by Grace alone and not by works.
What I don't agree with though is once saved always saved.
2 John 1: 8-9 Watch out that you do not lose what you have worked for, but that you may be rewarded fully. Anyone who runs ahead and does not continue in the teaching of Christ does not have God; whoever continues in the teaching has both the Father and the Son.
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Predetermined or Free Will |
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Luke 8:13
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Do you actually believe what you wrote?
I said God's plan of salvation was predestined. That is, He knew it was going to happen and it will happen no matter what. However, individuals are not predestined to be saved. God wants all to be saved but knows that not all will accept his gift of Grace. God's Will will succeed no matter what man may do.
1 Tim 2:1-7 I urge, then, first of all, that requests, prayers, intercession and thanksgiving be made for everyone--for kings and all those in authority, that we may live peaceful and quiet lives in all godliness and holiness. This is good, and pleases God our Savior, who wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth. For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, who gave himself as a ransom for all men--the testimony given in its proper time.
Please keep the verses you spout off in context. I have showed you many verses (in context) that talk about our choice and have showed you your verses (in context) that either have nothing to do with what you are using them for or could also be interpreted as free will. I have not seen one verse (taken in context) that says otherwise. Don't you wonder why there are so many verses that talk about "Free Will" and that the only verses Calvinists come up with are taken out of context and based on a faulty premise or that you have to twist the words of non-calvinists to imply things that were not stated? Please read the entire bible. Not just the verses that, on the surface, seem to fit you interpretation.
Eph 2:1-2 - The "dead in transgressions and sin" is not a literal term. How could he be talking to them if they were dead? What he's telling the Ephesians is how they are no longer following the ways of the world (they are dead to those ways) but are now saved through the Grace of God in Jesus Christ. Later in that same chapter he tells us that the Gentiles used to be separte from God are now included in the promise of being saved through Jesus.
As I stated previously:
You mentioned John 6:44. I agree that no sinner can make the first move in the salvation process. Fortunately, God has already made the first move through Jesus. It's now up to us to accept this. Also, if you put John 6:44 in context and read the entire section, you'll see a whole different meaning. John 6:38-40 - tells us that Jesus is sent to do the Father's will which is that EVERYONE who looks to the Son and believes in him shall have eternal life. John 6:44 in simply saying that no one is going to Heaven unless God Allows it. God wants everyone to be saved (this is backed up by other verses I'll supply if needed). John 6:45 "...EVERYONE who listens to the Father and learns from him comes to me." It doesn't say "only those I choose will come to me" John 6:47 "I tell you the truth, he who believes has everlasting life." John 6:51 "...This bread is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world." He's saying that he will give his life for the world, not a elect group in the world.
Another example, read the parable of the Lost Sheep. God didn't want any to be lost.
If you need more verses about All having the opportinity for salvation, let me know.
To close on, did Jesus die for everyone's sins or just some of the people?
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Do you have to be baptized to be saved? |
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Rom 6:3
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Would you then say that the thief on the cross was not saved because he was not baptized? And how about Abraham and David? And Moses. Is it not faith in God through His grace which saves (Ehesians 2: 8,9), as exemplified by Abraham?
Read Hebrews chapter eleven gives a list of heroes of the faith, and they are commended for believing God, not for being baptized.
Consider this: the records in Acts have people being saved, then being baptized. They are not saved because they are baptized, but baptized because they are saved. |
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Predetermined or Free Will |
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Luke 8:13
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I see that you are the typical brainwashed person that only believes what he has been told and is afraid to examine the evidence for yourself. If you'd bother to check the previous postings you would find that I did in fact answer your questions and showed you how your took your passages out of context to twist them to your way of thinking. I also noticed that you completely disregarded most of my questions and passages that talk very explicitly about "free will". You say that you answered my verses (actually there God's verses) by arguing that mere verses are insufficient and must be accompanied by the use of Scripture as a whole in context. I showed you your verses in context and how they have nothing to do with what you pretend to be accurate. You however have not shown me A SINGLE interpretation of one of the verses I listed about how God wants all to be saved, how it's our choice to accept the Gift of Grace that God offered, how it could be possible to renounce your salvation.
And as far as you saying that I have not thought much about the issues you raised could not be farther from the truth. That's the problem. I have thought a lot about the Calvinistic issues and have found that if you ignore the majority of the bible, then it holds up.
Calvinists seem to think that since the Bible doesn't use the term "Free Will" then it must not exist. Unfortunatly, you also miss all the examples (new and old testiment) that talk about it as our choice. God didn't put puppets here on earth, he put living, breathing, thinking humans here that would by their own human will choose to worship Him. You would have us believe that God created us and decided who would worship him. I'm sorry, I just don't see it that way when I read the Bible and all the things it says. Of course, my bible is more than just a few verses from Ephesians and Romans.
May God open your eyes and heart so that you may continue to grow.
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Saved by belief or belief and baptism? |
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NT general
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Short answer: Baptism is merely an outward symbol of an inward reality. 1 Pe 3:21 NASB "Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you--not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience--through the resurrection of Jesus Christ," "Though water itself cannot save, baptism with water is the vivid symbol of the changed life of one who has a conscience at peace with God through faith in Christ." (Ryrie Study Bible)
. . . "For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law " (Rom 3:28 NIV). We are justified by faith alone. We are saved by grace through faith plus nothing. We are not saved by grace through faith PLUS baptism. "For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not as a result of works, so that no one may boast." Eph 2:8-9 NASB |
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Is Passover celebrated by Messianic Jews |
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NT general
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Again, to answer, we are going to have to ask the question: Did the twelve apostles, and those who came after them, stop keeping the passover?
If you are a Jew, then you are obligated by your circumcision to do so; however, if you're a gentile, not being of that circumcision of the flesh, then there is no obligation. The book of Galatians deals with the result of the gentiles who sought to be justified by circumcision and strict following of the works of the law - they fell from grace (Eph. 2:8,9). For we are justified "by grace and through faith", sanctified "by grace and through faith", and baptized with the Holy Spirit "by grace and through faith".
Noone could ever be saved (justified, sanctified, or receive the baptism of the Holy Spirit) by working the law, for all have sinned (transgressed the law - I John 3:4) and fallen short of the glory of "God" (Romans 3:9-31, specifically 23 and also 19,20). Neither the Jew nor the gentile can be justified "by the deeds of (by strict observing of) the law", "Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law" (see verse 28 of the above passage in Romans). Neither are we made perfect by strictly observing the law; but, by our walk in His Holy Spirit in us (who are in Him by that Spirit) we grow on into perfection.
I believe that if your a gentile who is going to observe the passover to gain a deeper insight and understanding of the type, and not because you feel you have to do so, you are doing well. Otherwise, you have stumbled; but, be of good cheer, YHVH will uphold you even in your darkest hour. That is why he gave Paul the words to speak to the Galatians, and in a way to us today, so that we could be convicted of walking in legalism (if we do so) and repent. |
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Is there no volition? |
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John 15:4
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Is there no volition? My friend, does coming to Christ make us devoid of all will and self? Is the only reason I believe because the Spirit makes me? The only reason I obey is because I am coerced? The only reason I fellowship is because it is the only path set before me? It is my opinion that we still have a will, and that matching our will with God's will is pleasing to Him. Certainly the Holy Spirit is the Helper and Comforter, but I do not think He is the Puppetmaster. I know that works that glorify me are dead, but my obedience glorifies God. When we, of our own free will, choose to depart from sin and serve Jesus (with help and leading of the Holy Spirit), heaven rejoices. The reason I cannot accept unconditional election and the total depravity of man is that it leads to sin being a sign of non-election. If someone sins, it must be because he was not truly chosen. This is an extremely arrogant stance for those who are convinced of their own election. Is it possible they cannot see their own sin? Also, if we start weeding out all who have sinned as being non-elect, heaven will be a very lonely place. Finally, if there is no post-salvation grace, who will be saved? I believe that Jesus is the Author and Perfector of our faith. Our initial faith was a gift from God according to His grace, we can claim no credit. However, I also believe that we participate in some (admittedly small) way afterward, the as a pilgrim. James makes this all clear. He was used to dealing with legalistic Jews who had mapped out a path to God in the flesh. Faith and works are both essential. |
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Is there no volition? |
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John 15:4
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I'm not sure what my answer regarding the fruit of the Spirit has to do with the doctrine of election. I fail to see the connection.
. . . Of course man has limited free will. Believing on Christ (commiting oneself to Him) for salvation most definitely involves an act of the will on the part of the individual.
. . . As far as unconditional election, I do not believe I mentioned any such thing in my answer re John 15:4.
. . . I know of no one who believes that if someone sins it is because he was not truly chosen. All have sinned and come short of the glory of God, including the elect, who exist, regardless of how one defines election.
. . . "Is it possible the elect cannot see their own sin?" No, because no one can be saved unless and until he sees his own sin.
. . . "Post-election grace" is a term I am not familiar with.
. . . Yes, I agree with you that obedience has something to do with it. Our obedience is an evidence of genuine saving faith. However, obedience is the result, not the cause, of our salvation.
. . . Works are not essential to salvation. Rom 3:28 NIV "For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law." See also Eph 2:8-9. Properly understood, James and Romans do NOT contradict each other. However, proper understanding of the Scriptures does not come from a casual reading or dogmatic interpretation of them.
. . . Works are not essential to salvation -- they are the result of salvation and evidence of genuine saving faith. "Not of works lest any man should boast." This remains true no matter what Scriptures or human reasoning one uses to contradict it. |
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Explanations of difficult verses |
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NT general
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Difficult Verses on Baptism
Mark 16:16
Some say that baptism is a requirement for salvation. This doctrine flies in the face of salvation by grace through faith alone. What then does it mean? The two possible answers are:
It is not speaking of water baptism at all, but of the baptism of the Holy Spirit. This occurs at the time of our conversion, the time of our belief, and hence could be linked directly with belief in the verse.
The other possibility is that since baptism is so closely linked to the our belief in Christ that it is listed here as part of that process. This verse does not say that we must be baptized to be saved, but that when we are saved, we should be baptized. If it were saying that both belief AND baptism are requirements for salvation, it would have to list "not believe OR not been baptized" as the reason for condemnation. In fact, the grammatical construct of this sentence in Greek does not require that both parts on the left be true for the result on the right to be true. While this is not definitive proof that only belief is required to be saved, it leaves open that possibility. We can prove the interpretation with the rest of Scripture.
Luke 7:29-30
These two verses seem to indicate that someone's baptism has some effect on their ability to discern certain things. It is more likely that the condition of their heart and the presence of the Holy Spirit which led them to be baptized or not be baptized is the driving force in their discernment.
Acts 2:38
Some say that since receiving of the Holy Spirit occurs when we are save, then since baptism is required to receive the Holy Spirit, it is required to be saved.
This verse falls into the same Greek construct of not requiring both parts on the left to be true for the right of the equation to be true, again leaving open the possibility of repentance being the only requirement. Repentance (turning away from our sin), in the name of Jesus can only happen to those who receive Him as their Savior. It is when we receive Jesus, that our sins are forgiven. This verse shows once again how closely the time of a new Christian's baptism should be to the time they are saved.
Acts 8:14-17
Here we have an occurrence where people have been saved (Samaria had received the word of God), and yet had not received the Holy Spirit. Why?
The Holy Spirit typically comes to live inside of someone at the moment they are saved. But in this case, in order that God's acceptance of the Samaritans would be fully evident, the gift of the Spirit was delayed. God needed to show that His grace was available to ALL MEN. He needed to show it in a mighty way to the Jews. What better way than to have them actually see the Holy Spirit being received by the Samaritans, people whom the Jews loathed.
1 Corinthians 15:29
Some attempt to be baptized for someone who has already died, so that they may have eternal life and be saved. Such doctrine is inconsistent with the rest of Scripture. Baptism, which comes after we receive Jesus as our Savior and Lord, looks forward to our eternity in heaven. If none of this is true (heaven, eternal life, etc.), then our belief and baptism would be foolish. Praise be to God, that it ALL IS TRUE! Some early Christians may have dedicated their baptisms to those who had led them to Jesus who may have died or been killed.
1 Peter 3:21
Some find support for the idea that baptism is a requirement for salvation, in fact is the major requirement. This is simply not true. Peter specifically indicates that it is not water baptism he is speaking of (-- not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience--), but Spirit baptism. Water baptism does not save us, but symbolizes that we are saved. The waters of the flood brought death to those who did not believe, but life to Noah and his family. Yet in it all, it was God who provided the way of escape in the Ark, In the same way, God provides a way of escape for us in the cross of Jesus. The waters of baptism are for us a symbol of God's provision through the cross, just as the waters of the flood symbolize his provision for Noah's family through the ark.
Acts 16:31-34
Some claim that we may believe in Christ for the purpose of saving our infant children and that the Bible supports infant baptism for salvation of those infants.
This verse does not indicate that the belief of the jailhouse guard would save his household, but that salvation through belief was available to everyone in his household. Each of them must believe on their own as seen in verse 34 "with his whole household", as opposed to" for his whole household". Also, there is no indication here that this man had younger children who were too young to make their own profession of faith, hence there is no support for either believing or being baptized for the purpose of saving our infant children. |
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Is there no volition? |
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John 15:4
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"...work out your salvation with fear and trembling;" PHI 2:12 "...let us run with endurance the race that is set before us," HEB 12:1. Dear fellow, these are not intellectual exercises or academic processes. Let me explain: The original question was 'How do you abide in Christ?' (not, "what is the theory behind abiding?") My answer was that various willing actions of faith (submitting to the commands of Christ) would produce (sorry, bear) fruit. Your note indicated that faith, obedience, fellowship and sharing the gospel were fruit of the Holy Spirit, that we had no volition in the matter. Your above answer makes it clear that you believe salvation has little to do with life on earth. All our works are only a result of God's election. We indeed become merely puppets. This sounds so much like 'karma' that it is eerie. Are we simply products of the 'fate' that God decided. In the same way we credit Adam with willful sin (or was he just a tool to bring sin to mankind), give us all a little credit for abstaining from sin after we come to know Jesus (post-salvation grace and works). Apparently, 'proper understanding" of James is that he was wrong, works are not essential. I keep talking about how to serve Jesus here, now, in our present state, in the world we now occupy, and you keep answering in nebulous, prehistoric, and eschatological terminology, quoting dead people that agree with your doctrinal leanings. "To abide in Christ...is to have no known sin unjudged and unconfessed..." Does this mean that if you don't know it, it's not sin? Do you actually know anyone who has correctly judged and confessed every one of his sins? I haven't yet met such a person (except maybe in his own mind). Again, God initiated our walk in Christ by sending the gift of faith, but desires that we choose to continue that walk from our volition. He sent His Spirit to help us, and comfort us, and encourage us. Thank You, Jesus! |
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Was Pharaoh responsible? |
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Rom 9:17
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I believe you are right on the topic!
Thanks again!
In God's Grace,
Ric |
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How best to translate Ps. 45:6? |
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Psalm
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Clearly the Jehovah's Witnesses are wrong again. I don't know if you know about their "Bible" the "New World Translation" or "NWT"? They (the Jehovah's Witnesses) change quite a few verses to suit their false teachings. Like in John 1:1 (In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. [NAS]), the NWT changes the text to read something like this; "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a God." ..... That verse the JW's translate into their "Bible" is changed so that it reads like Jesus is not God. (sigh)
Well, it sounds like the verse you quoted sounds like another "mis-translation", and most likely is that way to support their false gospel.
I don't know if this helps any, but I see you are on the right track!
In God's Grace,
Ric
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HONOR THY FATHER AND MOTHER |
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Matt 22:37
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Jesus said that "No one can serve two masters" and that any attempt to serve 2 masters would result in choosing 1 over the other at some point. The example he then gives is God vs. mammon (material wealth). However, material wealth is not the only competitor he is concerned with. He also says that unless one "hates" his or her mother, father, sister, brother, wife, children and even one's own life, that person can not be His disciple. The Lord must be our first love, thus the choice being made (by his grace) to love him with all our heart, soul, mind and strength. This is comparable to Wesley's doctrine of "Christian perfection" as a "perfect" love for God as exercised by a "complete" disciple; this is what the Christian should desire. |
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What does Bible teach on election? |
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Bible general Archive 1
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I didn't always understand it either. It used to make me think of God as harsh. The problem was I was thinking of God as way too small and my sinfulness as way too little. All I recommmend you do is go through it a little at a time. Keep your heart open to the Spirit of God, and let the Scripture speak for itself. You may just find, as I did, that God cannot be kept in a box. He is bigger than I ever dreamed, and his mercy and grace mean far more to me than I ever imagined. Don't rush and enjoy the discovery. Feel free to ask any questions either here or via e-mail. |
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I CAME TO FULFILL THE LAW |
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Not Specified
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JESUS SAID I CAME TO FULFILL THE LAW. SINCE WE ARE IN THE AGE OF GRACE DO WE HAVE TO OBEY THE LAW OF MOSES? |
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I CAME TO FULFILL THE LAW |
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Matt 5:17
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JESUS SAID I CAME TO FULFILL THE LAW. SINCE WE ARE IN THE AGE OF GRACE DO WE HAVE TO OBEY THE LAW OF MOSES? |
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