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Paul wanted to be a martyr? |
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Phil 3:10
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I BELIEVE THAT PAUL WANTED TO BE WITH JESUS, FOR HE SAID IN PHIL 1:21 for to me, to live is christ and to die is gain. in verse 23 of the same chapter paul was struggeling within himself as to be with christ or sacrifice his desires for the furtherence of the gospel. |
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After betraying Christ, Judas died when? |
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NT general
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How long was it that Judas died after he betrayed Christ? |
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Aren't pictures wrong? |
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Acts 17:29
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Why do Christians today pretend that this scripture does not apply to the pictures and statues others use today? Does it not say, not to even think of the divine nature this way? |
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Do you have to be baptized to be saved? |
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Rom 6:3
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Ekip,yes you must be baptized into Christ to be saved.
Romans 6:3 definitely explains that, to be in Christ, you must be baptized into Christ. If you continue to read chapter 6, Paul explained what he meant when he wrote "those who have been baptized into Christ have been baptized into his death."
Romans 8:1 promises that there is no condemnation for those of us who are in Christ Jesus. How does someone get in Christ Jesus? Your question answered that: You must be baptized into Christ Jesus.
Peter has answered your question even more directly in 1 Peter 3:21. |
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Was Jesus Christ circumsized? |
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NT general
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Was Jesus Christ circumsized? I guess that by The Covenant of Circumcision in Genesis 17:9-14 he would have been. But it's difficult for me to understand that God would have to be circumsized. |
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Is this |
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Rom 6:3
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Yes, this refers to water baptism. Read the conversion of the Ethiopian in Acts 8:26-39. Notice the reference to baptism and water in verses 36-39. Not only was water involved, but it's apparent that the Ethiopian was immersed in the water. If sprinkled, why did they go down into and come up out of the water? Also, referring back to Romans 6, you must be buried with Christ in baptism in order that you might be resurrected with him. This implies being covered by water and, when coming up out of the water, being resurrected a new creation. |
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Why did God kill Uzzah? |
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2 Sam 6:6
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The inverse of this question is why didn't God kill those who broke his command and had the ark carried by oxen instead of the men who were assigned the task.
In this passage, although God exercises judgement on the sin of Uzzah, it must be clearly noted that he exercised grace concerning the sins of the others present. "...for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God." (Romans 3:23) "For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord. (Romans 6:23) Unfortunately many find themselves trapped into thinking that the Old Testament teaches judgement, and the New Testament teaches grace. This is an example of grace from the Old Testament. |
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What is Pentecost and its significance? |
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Acts 2:1
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Acts 1:8 says,"But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Spirit is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto Me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth."
Jesus had told them not to depart from Jerusalem, but to wait for the promise of the Father,which ye have heard of me.
For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days heance. Acts 1:4-5
Pentecost was this baptism of the Holy Spirit on the ones that it had been promised.
It's significance was to spread the Gospel to everyone that was in Jerusalem on that day, for they all heard in their own language.
This caused the Gospel of Jesus Christ to be spread abroad very quickly. |
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Do you have to be baptized to be saved? |
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Rom 6:3
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COL 2:9 For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form, 10 and you have been given fullness in Christ, who is the head over every power and authority. 11 In him you were also circumcised, in the putting off of the sinful nature, not with a circumcision done by the hands of men but with the circumcision done by Christ, 12 having been buried with him in baptism and raised with him through your faith in the power of God, who raised him from the dead. 13 When you were dead in your sins and in the uncircumcision of your sinful nature, God made you alive with Christ. He forgave us all our sins, 14 having canceled the written code, with its regulations, that was against us and that stood opposed to us; he took it away, nailing it to the cross. 15 And having disarmed the powers and authorities, he made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them by the cross. (NIV) .................... This passage shows baptism as symbolizing the believer's participation in the burial and resurrection of Christ. |
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Abel's sacrifice better than Cain's? |
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Heb 11:4
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Heb. 11:4 says that Abel offered a better sacrifice than Cain. That is a clear statement in Scripture. We next need to ask, "Why was Abel's offering better?" It is clear from the Gen 4 account that first each person's offering is described and then the text says the LORD had regard (or did not have regard) for that person AND their offering. So, the person was connected to the offering because -- as Hebrews points out -- the kind of offering brought was a clear demonstration of the person's faith. Finally, if one studies the nature of sacrifices made throughout Scripture, it is clear that God requires a blood sacrifice to atone for the sins of His people. It is completely a sound inference to say that Abel's offering was pleasing because it was a blood sacrifice. In the previous chapter, God kills an animal (blood) to get the skins for Adam and Eve's clothes. Later, Abraham is about to make a blood offering of his son Isaac, (though he substitutes a ram instead). This is the most important reason for understanding that - IN CONTEXT - Abel's offering was preferred was because it was a blood offering: because it was a type of the ultimate blood sacrifice and substitute, Jesus Christ. Abel's blood even cried out from the ground! Abel himself was a picture of Jesus Christ: though innocent he was killed, and the Lord replaced him, "resurrecting" the line of the promised Seed of the woman, by causing Eve to give birth to Seth. Just like the word "trinity" is not in the Bible but is clearly taught, so it is legitimate to infer the meaning of something like this when so much of the rest of Scripture in totality is in support of it.
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Interpretation of Bible teachings |
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James 5:14
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Please understand that a complete answer to this question would be quite long. Take this information and consider it while you search for Gods answer...and He will definately have one.
1. Most importantly, the idea that scripture has many different interpretations is not true. Hear me out. Yes there is a Priesthood of believers and we do not need to consult anyone but God to understand His Word. But this is not a license to interpret scripture in whatever way best fits our lives or beliefs. God wrote the Bible...end of discussion. To believe that it was a product of man and it may have mistakes is wrong. If it has one mistake, the whole of it can not be trusted. It may have a second mistake and we dont know where it is, so can you trust any of it? What if the part about how to enter into heaven has an error... It is either God Breathed or its not. See 1 Peter 1:20. The Bible must be interpreted with this question settled in your heart. God had only ONE meaning when He wrote it. Scripture has an abundance of Applications to our lives today...it is Living and active, and able..., but only one meaning. Try not to forget that God chose a certain generation and people group to unveil Himself to for the purpose of recording scripture, and that is not us. The epistle to the Corinthians does not begin with greetings to the 21st century Christians in So in So USA. It was to them in their time and their cultural setting. It does apply to us, but it was written to them.
2. Anointing ones head with oil may not mean what you think. In the cultural setting, way back in the time of Moses, God gave very discriptive laws about treatment of the sick. It was the priest who one went to when they were sick and they told them what requirement God gave for that situation. There were no doctors, only priest...elders. For many of the wounds then, a bandage soaked in wine and olive oil was appropriate to heal it. It was the elders responsibility to make sure you took care of the wound properly. This was the case later in the lives of mostly Jewish converts to Christianity in the time James wrote his epistle. In other words, the elders made sure you took their medicine. The wording Anoint your head with oil would have a profoundly different meaning to someone in the first century than it does today. This answer can be studied much more, especially using the Greek language it was written in which gives more details as to its meaning...ie.does the Greek word in place of head in English mean the literal head or does it have a broader meaning for the whole body...the head is control of the entire body as is with Christ being the head of the Church...
Consider this limited answer and go back to the text and look again.
Remember, if you hold that this taking to the elders and anointing someones head with some oil could lead poeple to believe doctors and medicine is not necessary. Maybe all that anointing ones head with oil does is get their hair all greesy!
Hope I helped some... |
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What is Pentecost and its significance? |
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Acts 2:1
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Pentecost is the Promise of a Universal Outpouring of the Holy Spirit upon believers who ask for Him (See Luke 11:11, 12, 13) with manifestations Peter emphasizes in his sermon, a promise the Father made centuries earlier by the Prophet Joel (Joel 2) as Peter shows further in Chap. 2. It is the seal of the promise Jesus made in John 14 when He said he would not leave us as orphans, but would send us another comforter, the Holy Spirit.
By the Holy Spirit Jesus constantly remains Emmanuel, God among us. The day iof Pentecost is recorded in history as the birthday of the church which is the body of Christ on earth. |
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opinion in NET Bible (cf. www.bible.org) |
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Gen 1:26
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I looked up any referance I could find about the word "Majesty", the closest I could come up with is the word "Exalted" in "Thompson's Chain Topics". try to look up the following:
Christ
His Exaltation, to Heavenly Places
Mark 16:19
Luke 22:69
Acts 2:36
Acts 5:31
Eph 1:20
Php 2:9
Heb 1:9
1Pe 3:22
Rev 5:12
SEE Christ; Exaltation of
SEE Christ; Head of the Church
SEE Christ; Honoured
God
Ps 21:13
Ps 47:9
Ps 57:11
Ps 99:5
Ps 108:5
Ps 118:28
Isa 12:4
Isa 25:1
Isa 33:5
SEE Honour
SEE Glorifying God
Israel
Exalted to a High Position when obedient. A type of the true church.
Deut 26:19
Deut 28:1
Deut 28:13
Deut 32:13
Deut 33:29
Isa 14:2
Isa 45:14
Isa 49:23
Isa 60:14
SEE God's; People
Under the Special protection of Jehovah.
SEE Promises, Divine; Of Protection
Saints
Of the Saints promised
Ps 91:14
Isa 33:16
Isa 58:14
Dan 12:3
Hab 3:19
Mat 19:28
Luke 19:17
1Co 6:2
Rev 3:21
Rev 5:10
Rev 11:12
SEE Reward
SEE Crowns; Spiritual
SEE Eternal; Glory
SEE Second Coming of Christ
(Thompson's Chain Topics, "Exalted")
I don't know if this will be of any help to you, but give it a try. :-) |
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Bible differences, Christian-Catholic |
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Bible general Archive 1
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How and why do Catholic Bibles differ from Christian (protestant) Bibles? I understand that Catholic Bibles have more books than Christian Bibles. If this is true, then why don't Christian Bibles have these books or why do Catholic Bibles have these books? Besides the books difference, what else differs from these two types of Bibles? |
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Why "son of man"? |
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Dan 8:17
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I don't know the difference in the Greek and Hebrew, but was there an obvious or logical reason that God chose in His word to call Daniel, Ezekial, etc., "son of man", but also refered to Christ as this also? |
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Is this the first time John saw Jesus? |
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John 1:29
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There's no Biblical account of this being the first time that John and Jesus met, but they were cousins (both of their mothers were sisters) and I think thay might have grown up with each other. Remember that John leaped in his mother's womb (Luke 1:41) when Mary met Elizabeth (Mary's sister), so being filled with the Holy Spirit John knew that the baby in Mary's womb was the Christ. |
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Take Your Holy Spirit from me? |
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Ps 51:11
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"No believer of the present Church Age need ever pray, 'Take not thy Holy Spirit from me'; for Christ promised His own that the Spirit would 'abide with you forever' (Jn. 14:16; compare Eph. 4:30). But it is always proper for the Christian to pray that he may be conformed to the conditions essential to the full ministry of the Spirit." (note at Ps. 51:11, New Scofield Reference Bible, 1967, Oxford University Press) "In the O.T. economy, the Holy Spirit was particularly related to service, rather than salvation...Here David is asking God not to take away his service as the anointed king of Israel..." (p. 846, The Ryrie Study Bible, 1976, 1978, Moody Press) |
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Why is the Apocrypha not God inspired? |
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Bible general Archive 1
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There are many reasons that the Apocrypha are not considered to be part of the Hebrew Canon; but, I'd like to address at this time the two books of Macabees. Malachi was the last prophet to speak exclusively to Israel. Even I Maccabees 9:27 and 14:41 confirm that "prophets [had
ceased to appear
among the people." Therefore I and 2 Maccabees could not have been inspired by God and consequently were not part of Scripture. Aside from the errors found in these books I think the above illustration is a valid enough reason to exclude these books from the Canon of Scripture. Which of course they were prior to the 16th century when the Council of Trent proclaimed them scripture. I hope this helps. In Christ, |
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Did God want us to have borders? |
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OT general
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In the Old Testament, under the Law, the Jews were to be separate from all other nations. But in the present Church Age, there is no distinction in God's eyes, no spiritual inequality before God. Galatians 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
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Can anyone give me more reasons? |
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Bible general Archive 1
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More Reasons .. ok
1.Not one of the apocryphal books is written in the Hebrew language, which was alone used by the inspired historians and poets of the Old Testament. All Apocryphal books are in Greek, except one which is only in Latin.
2.None of the apocryphal writers laid claim to inspiration.
3.The apocryphal books were never acknowledged as sacred scriptures by the Jews, custodians of the Hebrew scriptures (the apocrypha was written prior to the New Testament). In fact, the Jewish people rejected and destroyed the apocrypha after the overthow of Jerusalem in 70 A.D.
4.The apocryphal books were not permitted among the sacred books during the first four centuries of the real Christian church.
5.The Apocrypha contains statements which not only contradict
the "canonical" scriptures but themselves. For example, in the two Books of Maccabees, Antiochus Epiphanes is made to die three different deaths in three different places.
6.The Apocrypha includes doctrines in variance with the Bible, such as prayers for the dead and sinless perfection. The following verses are taken from the Apocrypha translation by Ronald Knox dated 1954:
Basis for the doctrine of purgatory:
(2Maccabees 12:43-45), 2.000 pieces of silver were sent to Jerusalem for a sin-offering...Whereupon he made reconciliation for the dead, that they might be delivered from sin.
Salvation by works:
(Ecclesiasticus 3:30), Water will quench a flaming fire, and alms maketh atonement for sin.
(Tobit 12:8-9, 17), It is better to give alms than to lay up gold; for alms doth deliver from death, and shall purge away all sin.
Magic:
(Tobit 6:5-8), If the Devil, or an evil spirit troubles anyone, they can be driven away by making a smoke of the heart, liver, and gall of a fish...and the Devil will smell it, and flee away, and never come again anymore.
Mary was born sinless (immaculate conception):
(Wisdom 8:19-20), And I was a witty child and had received a good soul. And whereas I was more good, I came to a body undefiled.
It teaches immoral practices, such as lying, suicide, assasination and magical incantation.
No apocryphal book is referred to in the New Testament whereas the Old Testament is referred to hundreds of times.
Because of these and other reasons, the apocryphal books are only valuable as ancient documents illustrative of the manners, language, opinions and history of the East.
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Did God want borders to exist? |
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OT general
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I believe that it is in keeping with God's character to unite and reconcile. Borders are a result of sin, and the discord that comes with it. As it is, until sin is done away with and Christ rules on the earth, we will have borders. Christ as King, however allows us to live above political bounderies to bring peace to the whole earth. |
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Is this |
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Rom 6:3
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No, you do not need to be "water" baptized to be saved. The word translated "baptized" (in most texts) literally translates as "immersed" which is to "completely dip, plunge under".
The 1 Peter 3:21 here equates “baptism now saves you” to “but an appeal to God for a good conscience - through the resurrection of Jesus Christ.”. This word appeal is the action word in the phrase and has nothing to do with “water baptism (immersion)”. Baptism here is the same as the Romans 6 comments below.
Some Jews of that day "water baptized (immersed)" themselves as an act of spiritual cleansing, purification. This was a normal thing for a religious person to do. Sometimes this was done more than once a day. Note that the Ethiopian is likely Jewish: for he worships at Jerusalem. Nothing is said in the Acts passage that “water baptism” is required for salvation. This was not the message Philip preached. The Ethiopian requests to be baptized. Baptism was something a repentant person did, so this is completely normal for the day.
As for Romans chapter 6: This speaks about believers being "buried with Him through baptism into death". One needs to read the context of this passage to understand what Paul meant by this. I think it is clear that believers are alive in Christ through His death and through His death we are saved. The baptism or immersion here is a reference to being immersed in His death, not a water baptism. Reason being that if we are in Him, we will also be raised up from the dead just as He was. Paul is using a logical argument in this chapter speaking about the believer and sin. Notice how Paul connects the points of his argument throughout the whole chapter, too.
Also note that, in the gospels, John baptized with (in) water but Jesus baptized with the Spirit. See: Matt. 3:11-12; John 1:32-34; Luke 3:16.
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The angel of the Lord is it really God? |
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Gen 32:24
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" . . . Traditional Christian interpretation has held that [the Angel of the Lord] was a preincarnate manifestation of Christ as God's Messenger-Servant. It may be, however, that, as the Lord's personal messenger who represented Him and bore His credentials, the angel could speak on behalf of (and so be identified with) the One who sent him . . . Whether this 'angel' was the second person of the Trinity remains therefore uncertain." (Zondervan NASB Study Bible, p. 26) |
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Must Christians keep the Sabbath today? |
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Ex 20:8
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Are the Sabbath laws binding on Christians today? |
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Can one who commits suicide be saved? |
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Mark 3:28
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Salvation comes through believing in Jesus. If you believe in Christ, but are brought to a point of despair where you killed yourself you would still be saved. This would not be the common course for a believer, but it could theoretically happen. |
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Does Jas 2 contradict Rom 4? |
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James
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No, because Paul, in Romans, is talking about our imputed justification which makes us righteous in the sight of God and is a gift from Him; whereas, James is discussing our obedience to live out our faith, to live out the Christian life, and he uses the word "justification" in the sense of our faith being vindicated before men. They are using the same word "justification" in two DIFFERENT ways. (This can be discerned by carefully studying the context.) |
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Once salvation is lost, it's always lost |
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Heb 6:4
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" . . . logically v. 4 implies that if salvation were to be lost, it would be impossible for that person to be born again, lose it, and then be born again again. This much is clear: whoever openly and consciously rejects Jesus Christ is unregenerate even if he seemed to have been saved ealier." Whether he had lost his salvation or never had it to begin with, "either way, the result is identical." (note at Heb. 6:4ff, NRSV Harper Study Bible) |
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Can a divorced person remarry? |
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1 Cor 7:15
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This is a hot topic. However, I believe that a Christian should not remarry. We are bound by the marriage covenant. |
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Is the unmarried bound by marriage? |
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1 Cor 7:15
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Thanks for your answer. I agree that a Christian should not divorce. But the question is: if a person was divorced on scriptural grounds (desertion or sexual immorality on the part of their former spouse), does that divorce not carry with it the right to remarry? Or is divorce nothing more than legalized separation? How is a person still bound by the marriage covenant if he is no longer married? |
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