HOW COULD JESUS BE A DESCENDANT OF DAVID				Bible general
	HOW COULD JESUS BE A DESCENDANT OF DAVID IF HE WAS CONCIEVED BY THE HOLY SPIRIT? HE DID NOT HAVE AN EARTHLY FATHER.
	HOW COULD JESUS BE A DESCENDANT OF DAVID				Bible general
	Because in the Jewish genealogy, the "mother side" is used to trace back the validity of citizenship and thus if a person is considered a true Jew or not. Since Mary was a true descendant of David, her son, Jesus as well as his brothers and sisters were true descendants of David.
	Why is the Apocrypha not included?				Bible general
	Why is the Apocrypha in some Bibles and not in others?
	geneology of Jesus				Bible general
	How do we actually trace the geneology of Jesus?
	Why is the Apocrypha not included?				Bible general
	The Hebrew Bible just has our OT part, the Catholic Bible includes the Apocrypha, while the Protestant Bible does not. The overriding reason for the exclusion of the Apocrypha is to say Protestants believe they're not inspired, thus not Word of God. Under this heading, various reasons are suggested, some being 1 factual fallacies (say regarding historical facts) are found, 2 they have no recognized Hebrew originals, 3 they're not in the Hebrew Bible traditionally used, 4 if they're included, the resultant "Bible" (OT) doesn't fit the descriptions in the NT
	Bible differences, Christian-Catholic				Bible general
	How and why do Catholic Bibles differ from Christian (protestant) Bibles? I understand that Catholic Bibles have more books than Christian Bibles. If this is true, then why don't Christian Bibles have these books or why do Catholic Bibles have these books? Besides the books difference, what else differs from these two types of Bibles?
	Bible differences, Christian-Catholic				Bible general
	The Apocrypha are interspersed among the canonical books of the Old Testament in the LXX and Vulgate, but not found in the Hebrew Old Testament. The Jewish people, who produced the Old Testament from the inspiration of God, and Protestants do not consider the Apocrypha canonical. The Roman Catholic Church received the Apocrypha as deuterocanonical at the Council of Trent in 1546.
	Why is the Apocrypha not God inspired?				Bible general
	Under reason 1, which are the factual fallacies you talk about? Please list and explain them. Under reason 4, how is it that it does not fit the descriptions in the NT? Again, please list and explain as I am really curious to find out more about this subject. Thanks.
	geneology of Jesus				Bible general
	The geneaology of Jesus is found at Matthew 1:1-17 and Luke 3:31-34. See also Ruth 4:18-22 and 1 Chronicles 1:34, 2:1-15.
	Why is the Apocrypha not God inspired?				Bible general
	There are many reasons that the Apocrypha are not considered to be part of the Hebrew Canon; but, I'd like to address at this time the two books of Macabees. Malachi was the last prophet to speak exclusively to Israel. Even I Maccabees 9:27 and 14:41 confirm that "prophets [had ceased to appear among the people." Therefore I and 2 Maccabees could not have been inspired by God and consequently were not part of Scripture. Aside from the errors found in these books I think the above illustration is a valid enough reason to exclude these books from the Canon of Scripture. Which of course they were prior to the 16th century when the Council of Trent proclaimed them scripture. I hope this helps. In Christ,
	Is Hades Hell?				Bible general
	The Bible mentions a place called Hades. Is Hades Hell?
	Can anyone give me more reasons?				Bible general
	Can anyone give me more reasons?
	Can anyone give me more reasons?				Bible general
	More Reasons .. ok 1.Not one of the apocryphal books is written in the Hebrew language, which was alone used by the inspired historians and poets of the Old Testament. All Apocryphal books are in Greek, except one which is only in Latin. 2.None of the apocryphal writers laid claim to inspiration. 3.The apocryphal books were never acknowledged as sacred scriptures by the Jews, custodians of the Hebrew scriptures (the apocrypha was written prior to the New Testament). In fact, the Jewish people rejected and destroyed the apocrypha after the overthow of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. 4.The apocryphal books were not permitted among the sacred books during the first four centuries of the real Christian church. 5.The Apocrypha contains statements which not only contradict the "canonical" scriptures but themselves. For example, in the two Books of Maccabees, Antiochus Epiphanes is made to die three different deaths in three different places. 6.The Apocrypha includes doctrines in variance with the Bible, such as prayers for the dead and sinless perfection. The following verses are taken from the Apocrypha translation by Ronald Knox dated 1954: Basis for the doctrine of purgatory: (2Maccabees 12:43-45), 2.000 pieces of silver were sent to Jerusalem for a sin-offering...Whereupon he made reconciliation for the dead, that they might be delivered from sin. Salvation by works: (Ecclesiasticus 3:30), Water will quench a flaming fire, and alms maketh atonement for sin. (Tobit 12:8-9, 17), It is better to give alms than to lay up gold; for alms doth deliver from death, and shall purge away all sin. Magic: (Tobit 6:5-8), If the Devil, or an evil spirit troubles anyone, they can be driven away by making a smoke of the heart, liver, and gall of a fish...and the Devil will smell it, and flee away, and never come again anymore. Mary was born sinless (immaculate conception): (Wisdom 8:19-20), And I was a witty child and had received a good soul. And whereas I was more good, I came to a body undefiled. It teaches immoral practices, such as lying, suicide, assasination and magical incantation. No apocryphal book is referred to in the New Testament whereas the Old Testament is referred to hundreds of times. Because of these and other reasons, the apocryphal books are only valuable as ancient documents illustrative of the manners, language, opinions and history of the East.
	Is Hades Hell?				Bible general
	Hades is the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew term “Sheol,” which refers in general to the place of the dead. In some translations it is translated 'hell'.The word Sheol occurs sixty-five times in the Hebrew Bible. The King James Version translates thirty-one of the occurrences as “hell”; another thirty-one occurrences as “grave”; and three occurrences as “pit” The Septuagint—the earliest Greek translation of the Old Testament—used hades to translate the Hebrew word Sheol.“Gehenna,” more precisely refers to hell.
	what was Mary's geneology				Bible general
	Since Joseph was not Jesus' natural father--Jesus' humanity came through his mother, Mary,--how do the geneologies in Matthew and Luke support that Jesus was a descendant of David?
	Is Hades Hell?				Bible general
	If you are talking about the traditional Hell (Lake of Fire) then the answer is NO. No one at this point in time is in the Lake of Fire. Look at Revelation 19:20 - 20:15 and you will see what I mean. If you are talking about Sheol then YES there are people there now. The Greeks referred to this as Hades. Though I have read that some believe that Hades and Sheol are different places. Note the Revelation passage states that Hades is thrown into the Lake of Fire.
	what was Mary's geneology				Bible general
	I think your question was answered by amor65 in his answer to the question HOW COULD JESUS BE A DESCENDANT OF DAVID? I have pasted his answer for you...Because in the Jewish genealogy, the "mother side" is used to trace back the validity of citizenship and thus if a person is considered a true Jew or not. Since Mary was a true descendant of David, her son, Jesus as well as his brothers and sisters were true descendants of David
	Is Hades then Purgatory?				Bible general
	So if Hades is not Hell (the lake of fire is), is Hades what Catholics consider to be Purgatory?
	Is Hades then Purgatory?				Bible general
	I am not sure if this will answer your question, but it may help. "Purgatory in Roman Catholic thought developed during the Middle Ages and hardened into dogma in reaction to the Protestant rejection of it. The Council of Trent (1545-63) declared that those who reject the doctrine of purgatory are 'anathema,' accursed....The doctrine can be seen as a distortion of biblical truth for several reasons: (1) Clear scriptural warrant is absent. The only possible supportive text is in the Apocrypha (II Macc. 12.43-45)." (Taken from the EVANGELICAL DICTIONARY OF THEOLOGY. Walter A. Elwell (ed.). Baker Books)
	What does Bible teach on election?				Bible general
	What does the Bible teach about election?
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