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Who wrote the Old Testament? |
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OT general
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Who wrote the Old Testament? |
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Who wrote the Old Testament? |
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OT general
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Holy men of old, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. |
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Is there sacrifice for sin after Jesus |
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Heb 10:12
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Good afternoon, Otto. Answering your question can be complicated. For this reason, I need to get some idea of how much you understand the Bible. Do you understand that the Old Testament was God's covenant with a specific group of people, the Jews? Do you understand that the New Testament is God's covenant with people of all nations and that this new covenant supersedes and replaced the old covenant that was made with the Jews? If you'll answer these two questions, it may or may not simplify my answer. Thanks, Dave. |
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Why did God kill Uzzah? |
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2 Sam 6:6
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The inverse of this question is why didn't God kill those who broke his command and had the ark carried by oxen instead of the men who were assigned the task.
In this passage, although God exercises judgement on the sin of Uzzah, it must be clearly noted that he exercised grace concerning the sins of the others present. "...for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God." (Romans 3:23) "For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord. (Romans 6:23) Unfortunately many find themselves trapped into thinking that the Old Testament teaches judgement, and the New Testament teaches grace. This is an example of grace from the Old Testament. |
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Interpretation of Bible teachings |
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James 5:14
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Prayer is the more significant of the two ministries performed by the elders, for the overall emphasis of the paragraph belongs on prayer. There are a number of reasons for understanding the application of oil as medicinal rather than sacramental. The word "anoint" is not the usual word for sacramental or ritualistic anointing.
Three different Greek words are translated "anoint" in the NT. Each expresses the same basic idea of rubbing or spreading oil, perfume, or ointment. It is a well-documented fact that oil was one of the most common medicines of biblical times (ISA 1:6 From the sole of your foot to the top of your head
there is no soundness--
only wounds and welts
and open sores,
not cleansed or bandaged
or soothed with oil.; LK 10:34 He went to him and bandaged his wounds, pouring on oil and wine. Then he put the man on his own donkey, took him to an inn and took care of him.
[NIV]). |
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How long were years of Noah's life? |
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OT general
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There's no reason to assume the length of a year was any different, although this forces the question of how Noah (and virtually everyone who is mentioned as living before him) could have lived such (incredibly?) long lives. The most common (and reasonable) explanation I know of is that the earth's climate was completely changed by the flood.
- Gen. 1:6-9 indicates that there were 2 "waters" associated with the earth, which were separated by air. Gen. 7:11-12 indicates that BOTH the springs from under the earth and the "gates of heaven" were poured out onto the earth. If these "waters above the earth" (or the "firmament" as they are often referred to) were a thick water-like protection of vapor (perhaps similar to a thick ozone with some kind of gaseous barrier holding it in place over the earth), it would function as a sort of terrarium, keeping out the harmful solar rays that significantly increase aging.
- Increasing disease no doubt affected lifespans, as well, but there is an extreme drop in age immediately after the flood, which is most reasonably attributable to a major change in climate caused by the flood.
- There is no mention of rain falling prior to the flood, and it's very possible that the method of watering described in the Garden of Eden in Genesis 2:5-6, 10 (water flowing out from underground and dew covering the surface) remained until the time of the flood. |
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Bible differences, Christian-Catholic |
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Bible general Archive 1
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The Apocrypha are interspersed among the canonical books of the Old Testament in the LXX and Vulgate, but not found in the Hebrew Old Testament. The Jewish people, who produced the Old Testament from the inspiration of God, and Protestants do not consider the Apocrypha canonical. The Roman Catholic Church received the Apocrypha as deuterocanonical at the Council of Trent in 1546. |
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Did God want us to have borders? |
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OT general
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In the Old Testament, under the Law, the Jews were to be separate from all other nations. But in the present Church Age, there is no distinction in God's eyes, no spiritual inequality before God. Galatians 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
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Can anyone give me more reasons? |
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Bible general Archive 1
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More Reasons .. ok
1.Not one of the apocryphal books is written in the Hebrew language, which was alone used by the inspired historians and poets of the Old Testament. All Apocryphal books are in Greek, except one which is only in Latin.
2.None of the apocryphal writers laid claim to inspiration.
3.The apocryphal books were never acknowledged as sacred scriptures by the Jews, custodians of the Hebrew scriptures (the apocrypha was written prior to the New Testament). In fact, the Jewish people rejected and destroyed the apocrypha after the overthow of Jerusalem in 70 A.D.
4.The apocryphal books were not permitted among the sacred books during the first four centuries of the real Christian church.
5.The Apocrypha contains statements which not only contradict
the "canonical" scriptures but themselves. For example, in the two Books of Maccabees, Antiochus Epiphanes is made to die three different deaths in three different places.
6.The Apocrypha includes doctrines in variance with the Bible, such as prayers for the dead and sinless perfection. The following verses are taken from the Apocrypha translation by Ronald Knox dated 1954:
Basis for the doctrine of purgatory:
(2Maccabees 12:43-45), 2.000 pieces of silver were sent to Jerusalem for a sin-offering...Whereupon he made reconciliation for the dead, that they might be delivered from sin.
Salvation by works:
(Ecclesiasticus 3:30), Water will quench a flaming fire, and alms maketh atonement for sin.
(Tobit 12:8-9, 17), It is better to give alms than to lay up gold; for alms doth deliver from death, and shall purge away all sin.
Magic:
(Tobit 6:5-8), If the Devil, or an evil spirit troubles anyone, they can be driven away by making a smoke of the heart, liver, and gall of a fish...and the Devil will smell it, and flee away, and never come again anymore.
Mary was born sinless (immaculate conception):
(Wisdom 8:19-20), And I was a witty child and had received a good soul. And whereas I was more good, I came to a body undefiled.
It teaches immoral practices, such as lying, suicide, assasination and magical incantation.
No apocryphal book is referred to in the New Testament whereas the Old Testament is referred to hundreds of times.
Because of these and other reasons, the apocryphal books are only valuable as ancient documents illustrative of the manners, language, opinions and history of the East.
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Is Hades Hell? |
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Bible general Archive 1
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Hades is the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew term “Sheol,” which refers in general to the place of the dead. In some translations it is translated 'hell'.The word Sheol occurs sixty-five times in the Hebrew Bible. The King James Version translates thirty-one of the occurrences as “hell”; another thirty-one occurrences as “grave”; and three occurrences as “pit” The Septuagint—the earliest Greek translation of the Old Testament—used hades to translate the Hebrew word Sheol.“Gehenna,” more precisely refers to hell. |
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So then, what is Hades? |
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Bible general Archive 1
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In the New Testament "hell" is the translation of two words, Hades and Gehenna . The word Hades , like Sheol sometimes means merely "the grave," (Acts 2:31; 1 Corinthians 15:55; Revelation 20:13) or in general "the unseen world." It is in this sense that the creeds say of our Lord, "He went down into hell," meaning the state of the dead in general, without any restriction of happiness or misery. Elsewhere in the New Testament Hades is used of a place of torment, (Matthew 11:23; Luke 16:23; 2 Peter 2:4) etc.; consequently it has been the prevalent, almost the universal, notion that Hades is an intermediate state between death and resurrection, divided into two parts one the abode of the blest and the other of the lost. It is used eleven times in the New Testament, and only once translated "grave." (1 Corinthians 15:55) (Smith's Bible Dictionary) |
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Is Hades also the lake of fire? |
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Bible general Archive 1
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Hades is the Greek word for Hell. It is the realm in which the unsaved or unrighteous people were sent. In the old testament the Hades realm was part Hell part Paradise. When someone died if they were a sinner they went to the hell side (the lake of fire) if they were righteous they went to the paradise side (Moses, Abraham). In the new testament some scriptures refer to the lake as hell fire Mat. 5:22. So from what I see in the scriptures it is the same place. |
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Just as if I had never sinned? |
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1 Cor 6:11
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'The term [justified]describes what happens when someone believes in Christ as his Savior: From the negative viewpoint, God declares the person to be not guilty; from the positive viewpoint, He declares him to be righteous. He cancels the guilt of the person's sin and credits righteousness to him.' (Zondervan NASB Study Bible, p. 1639) All this being true, it would be accurate to regard justification as a state in which my standing in the eyes of God is "just as if I had never sinned." Of course, justification by faith alone (Rom 3:28) does not give the justified one license to sin (Romans 6). The apostle Paul was falsely accused of teaching grace as a license to sin, as are many today who understand that SALVATION IS BY GRACE ALONE THROUGH FAITH ALONE IN CHRIST ALONE. "Salvation is conditioned solely on faith in Jesus Christ. Nearly 200 times faith, or belief, is stated as the single condition [for salvation] in the New Testament." (Ryrie Study Bible, Moody Press) Guilty feelings or memories have nothing to do with it; the fact remains "we are justified by faith apart from works of the Law" (Rom 3:28 NIV). |
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Does Jesus' name satisfy Matt 28:19? |
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Acts 2:38
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What follows may not entirely answer all that you asked in your question, but it does address some of the issues raised. Matthew 28:19 "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit." In this verse JESUS HIMSELF commands the disciples to baptize "in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit." . . . It is misleading to say "Father-Son-Holy Spirit is not metioned after Christ's resurrection. Perhaps not that exact phrase, but see such passages as 2 Cor 13:14 where the Lord Jesus Christ, God, and the Holy Spirit are most definitely MENTIONED. . . . Moreover, in the New Testament after the book of Acts rarely is Christ referred to as merely Jesus. The majority of times that His name is mentioned, He is called Christ, Jesus Christ or Christ Jesus. . . . It should be noted that the name of Jesus is not a magic word to get whatever we want. 'To ask in Jesus' "name" does not mean to tack such an expression on the end of a prayer as a mere formula. It means: 1) the believer's prayer should be for His purposes and kingdom and not selfish reasons.' (MacArthur Study Bible, p. 1613) |
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Do you agree with my personal opinion? |
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1 Cor 7:15
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I want to thank you and others for their replies to my question. Yes, I do agree with your personal opinion regarding marriage and I thank you for your answer. However, my original question remains unanswered. My question is not whether the New Testament provides grounds for divorce. Clearly it does -- sexual immorailty or desertion. My question is not how do Christians feel about divorce. It is not "Do you recommend divorce?" . . . Perhaps I didn't clearly state my original question. Let me make it clear. What I'm trying to find out is "What is divorce? What does the word divorce mean?" When the Jews, Romans and Greeks in the time of Christ's earthly ministry -- when they heard the word divorce, what did they understand it to mean? Is divorce merely a legal separation from bed and board? OR is it the dissolution of the marriage bond just as though that marriage had never existed? If it is the latter, then would not the right to divorce carry with it the right to remarry? Please don't misunderstand me. My question is not is it OK to divorce or should Christians divorce. My question is what is divorce? What does it mean? How was it understood at the time of Christ on earth? |
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Is "Paradise" the same as heaven? |
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Luke 23:43
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Paradise is not the same as heaven. Paradise was an underground compartment that was a place of comfort called Abraham's bosom (Luke 16:22) where all the Old Testament saints who had accepted the Lord were kept after death, awaiting the resurrection of Jesus Christ. Across from paradise was a place of agony, and between the two, God placed a chasm that was fixed so one could not pass over to the other. The good news is that when Jesus Christ died and was buried in the heart of the earth, he wasn't just lying there. He was conqueroring sin and death so that you and I may live with him in heaven for eternity. And when it was finished, I can just imagine Jesus handing the saints the keys to the kingdom of heaven just as he described to Peter in Matt. 16:19.
I suppose the theif on the cross didn't have a very long stay in paradise.
Revelation 1:18 says that Jesus Christ still holds the keys of death and Hades. Eventually, these people will be thrown into the lake of fire.
Say yes to Jesus Christ. He is a free gift. God is a God of love, but he is also just. |
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How do you then interpret the verses... |
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Luke 8:13
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WHAT DOES THE BIBLE TEACH ABOUT ELECTION? (continued from previous message)
Occasionally someone will suggest that God's election is based on His foreknowledge of certain events. This argument suggests that God simply looks into the future to see who will believe, and He chooses those whom He sees choosing Him. Notice that 1 Peter 1:2 says the elect are chosen "according to the foreknowledge of God the Father," and Romans 8:29 says, "whom He foreknew, He also predestined." And if divine foreknowledge simply means God's knowledge of what will happen in advance, then these arguments may appear to have some weight behind them.
But that is not the biblical meaning of "foreknowledge." When the Bible speaks of God's foreknowledge, it refers to God's establishment of a love relationship with that person. The word "know," in both the Old and New Testament, refers to much more than mere cognitive knowledge of a person. Such passages as Hosea 13:4-5; Amos 3:2 (KJV); and Romans 11:2 clearly indicate this. For example, 1 Peter 1:20 says Christ was "foreknown before the foundation of the world." Surely this means more than that God the Father looked into the future to behold Christ! It means He had an eternal, loving relationship with Him. The same is true of the elect, whom we are told God "foreknew" (Romans 8:29). That means He knew them--he loved them--before the foundation of the world.
If God's choice of the elect is unconditional, does this rule out human responsibility? Paul asks and answers that very question in Romans 9:19-20. He says God's choice of the elect is an act of mercy. Left to themselves, even the elect would persist in sin and be lost, because they are taken from the same fallen lump of clay as the rest of humanity. God alone is responsible for their salvation, but that does not eradicate the responsibility of those who persist in sin and are lost--because they do it willfully, and not under compulsion. They are responsible for their sin, not God.
The Bible affirms human responsibility right alongside the doctrine of divine sovereignty. Moreover, the offer of mercy in the gospel is extended to all alike. Isaiah 55:1 and Revelation 22:17 call "whosoever will" to be saved. Isaiah 45:22 and Acts 17:30 command all men to turn to God, repent and be saved. First Timothy 2:4 and 2 Peter 3:9 tell us that God is not willing that any should perish, but desires that all should be saved. Finally, the Lord Jesus said that, "the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out" (John 6:37).
In summary, we can say that God has had a special love relationship with the elect from all eternity, and on the basis of that love relationship chosen them for salvation. The ultimate question of why God chose some for salvation and left others in their sinful state is one that we, with our finite knowledge, cannot answer. We do know that God's attributes always are in perfect harmony with each other, so that God's sovereignty will always operate in perfect harmony with His goodness, love, wisdom, and justice.
For further study:
John MacArthur, The Love of God (Dallas: Word, 1996).
J. I. Packer, Evangelism and the Sovereignty of God (Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity, 1961).
© 2000 Grace to You
. . . (article by John MacArthur at www.gty.org - listed in Issues and Answers archives) |
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who are the spirits in this verse? |
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1 Peter
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In Eph 4:8-10 it says that Jesus first descended and then ascended into heaven leading a host of captives. So, I believe that these were Old Testament saints that were waiting for the promise. Jesus went to Sheol, and explained what He had done and then led them to Heaven with Him. |
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Is inter-racial marriage biblical? |
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Deut 7:3
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Is it alright to marry someone from a different race? The Old Testament contained some restrictions on whom the Israelites could marry. (Deut. 7:3-4) (Lev. 21:13-14). There were even some strict regulations about inter-tribal marriage(Num. 36:3-9) |
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Is tithing for today? |
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Lev 27:30
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Does God require me to give a tithe of all I earn?
. . . Two kinds of giving are taught consistently throughout Scripture: giving to the government (always compulsory), and giving to God (always voluntary).
. . . The issue has been greatly confused, however, by some who misunderstand the nature of the Old Testament tithes. Tithes were not primarily gifts to God, but taxes for funding the national budget in Israel.
. . . Because Israel was a theocracy, the Levitical priests acted as the civil government. So the Levite's tithe (Leviticus 27:30-33) was a precursor to today's income tax, as was a second annual tithe required by God to fund a national festival (Deuteronomy 14:22-29). Smaller taxes were also imposed on the people by the law (Leviticus 19:9-10; Exodus 23:10-11). So the total giving required of the Israelites was not 10 percent, but well over 20 percent. All that money was used to operate the nation.
. . . All giving apart from that required to run the government was purely voluntary (cf. Exodus 25:2; 1 Chronicles 29:9). Each person gave whatever was in his heart to give; no percentage or amount was specified.
. . . New Testament believers are never commanded to tithe. Matthew 22:15-22 and Romans 13:1-7 tell us about the only required giving in the church age, which is the paying of taxes to the government. . . . Interestingly enough, we in America presently pay between 20 and 30 percent of our income to the government--a figure very similar to the requirement under the theocracy of Israel.
. . . The guideline for our giving to God and His work is found in 2 Corinthians 9:6-7: "Now this I say, he who sows sparingly shall also reap sparingly; and he who sows bountifully shall also reap bountifully. Let each one do just as he has purposed in his heart; not grudgingly or under compulsion; for God loves a cheerful giver."
© 2000 Grace to You
. . . (www.gty.org Click on Issues and Answers. Then click on Previous Topics) . . .
For much more in-depth information on Tithing, including many Scripture references, look up Tithing in Baker's Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology. Baker's Dictionary is available online at bible.crosswalk.com |
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Sabbath laws....do? or don't? |
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Col 2:16
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Are the Sabbath laws binding on Christians today?
. . . We believe the Old Testament regulations governing Sabbath observances are ceremonial, not moral, aspects of the law. As such, they are no longer in force, but have passed away along with the sacrificial system, the Levitical priesthood, and all other aspects of Moses' law that prefigured Christ. . . . Here are the reasons we hold this view.
. . . In Colossians 2:16-17, Paul explicitly refers to the Sabbath as a shadow of Christ, which is no longer binding since the substance (Christ) has come. It is quite clear in those verses that the weekly Sabbath is in view. The phrase "a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath day" refers to the annual, monthly, and weekly holy days of the Jewish calendar (cf. 1 Chronicles 23:31; 2 Chronicles 2:4; 31:3; Ezekiel 45:17; Hosea 2:11). If Paul were referring to special ceremonial dates of rest in that passage, why would he have used the word "Sabbath?" He had already mentioned the ceremonial dates when he spoke of festivals and new moons.
. . . The Sabbath was the sign to Israel of the Mosaic Covenant (Exodus 31:16-17; Ezekiel 20:12; Nehemiah 9:14). Since we are now under the New Covenant (Hebrews 8), we are no longer required to observe the sign of the Mosaic Covenant.
. . . The New Testament never commands Christians to observe the Sabbath.
. . . In our only glimpse of an early church worship service in the New Testament, the church met on the first day of the week (Acts 20:7).
. . . Nowhere in the Old Testament are the Gentile nations commanded to observe the Sabbath or condemned for failing to do so. That is certainly strange if Sabbath observance were meant to be an eternal moral principle.
. . . There is no evidence in the Bible of anyone keeping the Sabbath before the time of Moses, nor are there any commands in the Bible to keep the Sabbath before the giving of the law at Mt. Sinai.
. . . When the Apostles met at the Jerusalem council (Acts 15), they did not impose Sabbath keeping on the Gentile believers.
. . . The apostle Paul warned the Gentiles about many different sins in his epistles, but breaking the Sabbath was never one of them.
. . . In Galatians 4:10-11, Paul rebukes the Galatians for thinking God expected them to observe special days (including the Sabbath).
. . . In Romans 14:5, Paul forbids those who observe the Sabbath (these were no doubt Jewish believers) to condemn those who do not (Gentile believers).
. . . The early church fathers, from Ignatius to Augustine, taught that the Old Testament Sabbath had been abolished and that the first day of the week (Sunday) was the day when Christians should meet for worship (contrary to the claim of many seventh-day sabbatarians who claim that Sunday worship was not instituted until the fourth century).
. . . Sunday has not replaced Saturday as the Sabbath. Rather the Lord's Day is a time when believers gather to commemorate His resurrection, which occurred on the first day of the week. Every day to the believer is one of Sabbath rest, since we have ceased from our spiritual labor and are resting in the salvation of the Lord (Hebrews 4:9-11).
. . . So while we still follow the pattern of designating one day of the week a day for the Lord's people to gather in worship, we do not refer to this as "the Sabbath."
. . . (www.gty.org Click on Issues and Answers. Click on Previous Topics) |
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Is "Paradise" the same as heaven? |
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Luke 23:43
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Jesus did not ascend to heaven until after the resurrection. And before his death and his redemptive work on the cross, the red letter words of Jesus in John 6:46 says, No one has seen the Father except the one who is from God.
How do explain where the Old Testaments believers that had died were?
Luke 23:43 says, Jesus answered him, "I tell you the truth, TODAY you will be with me in paradise."
Jesus still had three days and three nights to be in the heart of the earth.
Matt. 12:40 "For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of a huge fish, so the Son of Man will be three nights in the heart of the earth."
We know that his body was not buried in the earth, because the Bible tell us he was placed in a tomb. |
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Is John 6:66 the answer to 666 riddle? |
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John 6:66
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The present chapter divisions in our Bibles were invented in 1205 by Stephen Langton, a professor in Paris (he later became Archbishop of Canterbury), who put these into a Vulgate edition of the Bible. These chapter divisions were first used by the Jews in 1330 for the Hebrew Old Testament in a manuscript and for a printed edition in 1516. This system of chapter divisions likewise came into the Greek manuscripts of the New Testament in the 1400s.
It was Robert Stephanus, a Parisian book printer, who added the verse divisions we use today. He took over the verse divisions already indicated in the Hebrew Bible by the soph pasuq (these were gaps in the text to help scholars find their place) and assigned numbers to them within the chapter divisions already assigned by Stephan Langton. While riding on horseback from Paris to Lyons he affixed his own verse divisions to the New Testament and numbered them within Langton's chapter divisions. Consequently the quality of his work was not the best...
From this brief survey of the history of the Bible's chapter and verse divisions it is very apparent that these are nothing more than a handy method of reference. They do not necessarily represent those units of composition present in the author's mind as he strove to impart his thoughts. ...
There is no doubt that the chapter divisions which we have inherited from Langton leave much to be desired. These divisions do not rest upon a comprehension of the literary structure of the Biblical books. ... All that we can do is to realize that this system falls far short of doing justice to the inherent units of Scripture.
(The above is exerpted from the web site "Chapters and Verses -- Late Comers" by Daniel P. Fuller; www.fuller.edu. Text restrictions in the answer format prevent me from listing the complete web site address - it won't allow the backslash character.) |
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Abiding seems to be very important in sc |
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John 15:4
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AMEN, Brother!! |
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Are the unevangelized people really lost |
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Rom 2:15
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Are the unevangelized people really lost?
. . . Yes, they are. How shall they believe? "...believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and thou shalt be saved..." (Acts 16:31) It follows then that not to believe is not to be saved. "...And how shall they believe in Him of whom they have not heard?..." (Rom 10:14 NKJV).
Is God's judgment upon the unevanglized a just judgment?
. . . Yes, it is. Romans 2:2 "But we know that the judgment of God is according to truth against those who practice such things."
. . . What have the unevangelized done to deserve such condemnation?
. . . "God punishes them, because what can be known about God is plain to them" (Rom 1:19 TEV)
. . . Today's English Version Romans 1:18-32
. . . God's anger is revealed from heaven against all the sin and evil of the people whose evil ways prevent the truth from being known. God punishes them, because what can be known about God is plain to them, for God himself made it plain. Ever since God created the world, his invisible qualities, both his eternal power and his divine nature, have been clearly seen; they are perceived in the things that God has made. So those people have no excuse at all! They know God, but they do not give him the honor that belongs to him, nor do they thank him. Instead, their thoughts have become complete nonsense, and their empty minds are filled with darkness. They say they are wise, but they are fools; instead of worshiping the immortal God, they worship images made to look like mortals or birds or animals or reptiles.
. . . And so God has given those people over to do the filthy things their hearts desire, and they do shameful things with each other. They exchange the truth about God for a lie; they worship and serve what God has created instead of the Creator himself, who is to be praised forever! Amen. Because they do this, God has given them over to shameful passions. Even the women pervert the natural use of their sex by unnatural acts. In the same way the men give up natural sexual relations with women and burn with passion for each other. Men do shameful things with each other, and as a result they bring upon themselves the punishment they deserve for their wrongdoing.
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Because those people refuse to keep in mind the true knowledge about God, he has given them over to corrupted minds, so that they do the things that they should not do. They are filled with all kinds of wickedness, evil, greed, and vice; they are full of jealousy, murder, fighting, deceit, and malice. They gossip and speak evil of one another; they are hateful to God, insolent, proud, and boastful; they think of more ways to do evil; they disobey their parents; they have no conscience; they do not keep their promises, and they show no kindness or pity for others. They know that God's law says that people who live in this way deserve death. Yet, not only do they continue to do these very things, but they even approve of others who do them.
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WAS THE ANGEL JESUS |
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Not Specified
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WAS THE ANGEL OF THE LORD IN THE OLD TESTAMENT ACTUALLY A PREINCARNATE APPEARANCE OF CHRIST. |
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WAS THE ANGEL JESUS |
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Genesis
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WAS THE ANGEL OF THE LORD IN THE OLD TESTAMENT ACTUALLY A PREINCARNATE APPEARANCE OF CHRIST. |
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WAS THE ANGEL JESUS |
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Genesis
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" . . . Traditional Christian interpretation has held that [the Angel of the Lord] was a preincarnate manifestation of Christ as God's Messenger-Servant. It may be, however, that, as the Lord's personal messenger who represented Him and bore His credentials, the angel could speak on behalf of (and so be identified with) the One who sent him . . . Whether this 'angel' was the second person of the Trinity remains therefore uncertain." (Zondervan NASB Study Bible, p. 26) |
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What is required in giving offerings alm |
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Bible general Archive 1
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NEW TESTAMENT BELIEVERS ARE NEVER COMMANDED TO TITHE.
. . . Does God require me to give a tithe of all I earn?
. . . Two kinds of giving are taught consistently throughout Scripture: giving to the government (always compulsory), and giving to God (always voluntary)
. . . . The issue has been greatly confused, however, by some who misunderstand the nature of the Old Testament tithes. Tithes were not primarily gifts to God, but taxes for funding the national budget in Israel
. . . . Because Israel was a theocracy, the Levitical priests acted as the civil government. So the Levite's tithe (Leviticus 27:30-33) was a precursor to today's income tax, as was a second annual tithe required by God to fund a national festival (Deuteronomy 14:22-29). Smaller taxes were also imposed on the people by the law (Leviticus 19:9-10; Exodus 23:10-11). So the total giving required of the Israelites was not 10 percent, but well over 20 percent. All that money was used to operate the nation
. . . . All giving apart from that required to run the government was purely voluntary (cf. Exodus 25:2; 1 Chronicles 29:9). Each person gave whatever was in his heart to give; no percentage or amount was specified
. . . . New Testament believers are never commanded to tithe. Matthew 22:15-22 and Romans 13:1-7 tell us about the only required giving in the church age, which is the paying of taxes to the government
. . . . Interestingly enough, we in America presently pay between 20 and 30 percent of our income to the government--a figure very similar to the requirement under the theocracy of Israel
. . . . The guideline for our giving to God and His work is found in 2 Corinthians 9:6-7: "Now this I say, he who sows sparingly shall also reap sparingly; and he who sows bountifully shall also reap bountifully. Let each one do just as he has purposed in his heart; not grudgingly or under compulsion; for God loves a cheerful giver." © 2000 Grace to You
. . . (www.gty.org Click on Issues and Answers. Then click on Previous Topics) . . . For much more in-depth information on Tithing, including many Scripture references, look up Tithing in Baker's Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology. Baker's Dictionary is available online at bible.crosswalk.com |
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