NASB, AMP, LBLA The Lockman Foundation New American Standard Bible, Amplified Bible, La Biblia de las Américas, and NBLH
CATALOG 
 LOCKMAN 
 STUDYBIBLEFORUM.COM 
 FINDABIBLE.COM 
StudyBibleForum.com Welcome to the StudyBibleForm.
Ask Bible quesitons and give answers!

 
 
Show Me
Statistics
Notes
Answers

Questions:
   Answered
   Unanswered
   Primary (?)
 
Resources

About the Forum
Help & FAQs
Lockman Foundation
Discount Bibles
Bible Translations
 

  who are the spirits in this verse?      
1 Peter
  1peter chapter 3 verse 19

through whom he also went and preached to the spirits in prison.

Who are the spirits in this verse?
  who are the spirits in this verse?      
1 Peter
  In Eph 4:8-10 it says that Jesus first descended and then ascended into heaven leading a host of captives. So, I believe that these were Old Testament saints that were waiting for the promise. Jesus went to Sheol, and explained what He had done and then led them to Heaven with Him.
  who are the spirits in this verse?      
1 Peter
  The key to understanding this passage is in the tense of the verbs. Peter is not saying that Jesus went to Hades and preached to people who were there.

V. 19 begins by saying "in which", which refers back to the last phrase of v. 18: "in the spirit." Since "spirit" and "flesh" are contrasted in v. 18, the contrast is between the two very different kinds of realms. The "flesh" is the physical, seen realm in which we commonly live, and the "spirit" is the spiritual, unseen realm in which Jesus was raised and in which we now live. (By my saying that Jesus was raised in the spiritual realm, I am not denying the fact that He was raised physically from the dead. But His resurrection was a supernatural, spiritual act of God.)

In the spiritual realm (v. 19 could be paraphrased), Jesus went and made proclamation (past tense) to the spirits (now) in prison). If we can determine when Jesus made the proclamation, then we can determine who the spirits are. Verse 20 tells us when Jesus made the proclamation: "in the days of Noah."

To paraphrase, what these verses are teaching is that when Noah was building the ark, Jesus, in the spiritual realm, "went and made proclamation" through the lips of Noah to those "who were disobedient." They, having rejected the message, are now "spirits in prison."

This is a difficult passage, and my interpretation is not original with me, but I do believe that it answers the grammatical and theological issues that can be raised.
  who are the spirits in this verse?      
1 Peter
  I agree with this answer. Jesus descended into hades to the section called the bosom of Abraham and brought out the Old Testament saints. These were the believers of the Old Testament and not the non-believers who perished in the great flood of Noah. For those people there was no second chance just like today's non-believers will not have a second chance once the rapture comes and Christians are taken out of the world. Only those who never have heard the Gospel will have an opportunity during tribulation to be saved.
  who are the spirits in this verse?      
1 Peter
  Hello Lydia,
It appears to me your question way back in February may not have been correctly answered.
The Spirits referred to in verse 19 ch. 3 of 1Peter are the angels(sons of God) from Gen 6:2,4 which took daughters of men for wives and had children who were giants(nephilim in Hebrew). Compare 2Pet2:4 and Jude 6 which are considered to be toghether with this verse. They are the fallen angels which were evidently great in size, as well as great in wickedness, They were superhuman, abnormal beings; and their destruction was necessary for the preservation of the human race, and for the faithfulness of Jehovah's Word(Gen3:15). This is why the Flood was brought "upon the world of the ungodly"(2Pet2:5) as prophesied by Enoch(Jude 14).
Hope this helps. Peace, Casiv
  who are the spirits in this verse?      
1 Peter
  Lydia
Be very careful with what Casiv said, it simply not supported scripturally. Also what Rhoades said is a allegorical view of what might have taken place.
I agree with with the first two responders but they fail to mention that Jesus also preached to the lost not to give them a second chance but to show them justice of their rejection of Him.
EdB
  A woman of discretion embraces -      
1 Peter
  what specific instructions does Peter give to women who are married to unbelievers?

describe the women of Zion. How many items of finery did they have? (Isaiah 3:16-24)
  who are the spirits in this verse?      
1 Peter
  Sarah wife of Abraham
  A woman of discretion embraces -      
1 Peter
  smileysue, First Peter tells us that we must be submissive to the unbelieving husband so that he may be won over by our actions. Paul goes on to tell us in 1Cor 7:12-16 that we are not to divorce the unbelieving spouse because the husband is made holy through the believing wife and vice versa.
In Isaiah 3 I dont believe you can count how many items they had. What the author was stressing was that the women of Judah had placed their emphasis on clothing and jewelry rather than God. They dressed to be noticed, to gain approval and to be fashionable. They were being self centered and self serving.
smileysue, when you have quetions about more than 1 passage please put it in 2 different questions. It makes it easier to give a better answer. Thanks prayon
  who are the spirits in this verse?      
1 Peter
  EdB,
This hurts me that you have said this. Perhaps you would like to prove that what I said is not scriptural with scripture and not your own point of view.

I have quoted scripture to support what I stated are you saying the Bible is not true? Is the massoretic text not true either, because it proves that the fallen angels were the sons of God in Gen 6. Are you saying the massoretic text is a lie?

Perhaps you could have said you agree with the first two and moved on but you had to make a durogatory statement.

How am I supposed feel about trying to share what I believe with someone who doe s these types of things. You make me feel guilty! I have a conscience, do you?

In patience and love I have been very nice to you even though you judge me.

So what you're saying is that Jesus rubbed in the noses of the angels that left their first estate and bragged justice?

Confused about your intentions, or am I?
Peace, Casiv
  Not mixed Spirits      
1 Peter
  Suppose your right about GENISIS 6, which you are not.Then could those fallen Angels be redeemed since they now are flesh.And if Spirits can manifest them selves as people then how do we know that the resurected Christ wasnt Satan manifest.Would God Flood the whole world and make man guilty of what the satanic beings iniciated, no way. The Bible proclaims that we are all from one seed. And hath made of one blood all nations of men for to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation;27 That they should seek the Lord, if haply they might feel after him, and find him, though he be not far from every one of us:Acts 17:27 (KJV)
And our Savior says that a spirit does not have blood and bones as you see me have. Also we know that Angels are not given in Marriage. So what does GEN 6 mean , merely that the Knigs of that time married out of their estate, This is how they fell. Archiology shows that they were called the sons of God. Your brother in Christ RCSCROLL
  Not mixed Spirits      
1 Peter
  Alternate view...................................

Actually, I agree with Casiv's basic premise--that these "sons of God" were fallen angels. I think the comparison against the "daughters of men" lends credence to this.

The difficulty, which you have brought up, is that they would have to put on flesh and somehow propagate. One explanation I heard recently was that these were men who were possessed by the evil spirits and their physical make-up was somehow altered enough to allow birth to these giants.

Steve
  Not mixed Spirits      
1 Peter
  Hello RCSROLL,
Thanks for your response. Whether or not the fallen angels are to be redeemed I only know what scripture says. The structure of 2Pet2:4-8 is in relation to the "Ungodly of Old Time" as follows:
vs.4-Angels
vs.-4 cast down to Tartarus
vs.5-The old world
vs-5 The Flood
vs.6- Sodom and Gomorrha
vs-6-8 Overthrown

With all due respects I think we need to let scripture speak for itself regarding God flooding the world. In my KJV it doesn't say the whole world just the ungodly world.(Not to start another discussion, just what my KJV says).

2Pet2:4 - For if God spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to hell, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgement;
2Pet2:5 - And spared not the old world, but saved Noah the eighth person, a preacher of righteousness, bringing in the flood upon the world of the ungodly;

Based on the above text in my opinion it doesn't appear the angels have much chance for redemption but that is up to God.

Regarding "The Sons of God" in Gen.6:2,4

It is only by Divine specific act of creation that any created being can be called, "a son of God". For that which is "born of the flesh is flesh". God is spirit, and that which is 'born of the Spirit is spirit"(John 3:6). Hence Adam is called a"son of God" in Luke 3:38. Those "in Christ" having "the new nature" which is by direct creation of God(2Cor5:17,Eph 2:10) can be, and are called"sons of God"(John 1:13, Rom 8:14,15, 1John3:1). This is why angels are called"sons of God' in every other place where the expression is used int the Old Testament. Job 1:6,2:1,38:7, Psalm 29:1,89:6, Dan 3:25(no art.) We have no authority or right to take the expression in Gen 6:2,4 in any other sense. Moreover, in Gen. 6:2 the Sept. renders it "angels".
Angels are called "spirits"(Psalm 104:4, Heb 1:7,14), for spirits are created by God.
That there was a fall of the angels is certain from Jude 6. The nature of their fall is clearly stated in the same verse. They left their own(oiketerion). This word occurs only in 2Cor 5:2 adn Jude 6, where it is used of the spiritual(or resurrection)body. The nature of their sin is stated to be "in like manner" to that of the subsequent sins of Sodom and Gomorrha, Jude 7. The time of their fall is given as having taken place "in the days of Noah"(1Pet3:20, 2Pet2:7), though there may have been a prior fall which caused the end of "the world that then was"(Gen 1:1,2, 2Pet3:6). For this sin they are "reserved unto judgement", 2Pet2:4, and are in "prison" 1Pet3:19.
Their progeny, called Nephillim(translated "giants"), were monsters of iniquity; and, being superhuman in size and character, had to be destroyed. This I believe was the one and only object of the Flood. Only Noah and his family had preserved their pedigree pure from Adam(Gen 6:9). All the rest had become"corrupt" destroyed(as Adamites). The only remedy was to destroy it, as it had become destroyed. This irruption of fallen angels was satan's first attempt to prevent the coming seed of the Seed of the woman foretold in Gen 3:15. If this this could be accomplished, God's Word would have failed, and his(satan) own doom would be averted. This is what I believe.

A question I have regarding Jesus changing form is in Mark16:12 Jesus appeared in a different form than he had in verse 16:9? Also on the mount of transfiguration were Moses and Elijah in the spirit or in the flesh? What do you think?
Thanks RCSCROLL I appreciate your thoughts.
Peace in Faith and Hope, Casiv
  who are the spirits in this verse?      
1 Peter
  Casiv
Don't try to put me on a guilt trip. You have far more to apologize to me for than I to you.

I rather dogmatically stated your theory had no Biblical truth, and that was wrong, your theory is considered along with many others in reference to the ‘Sons of God’ Genesis 6:2.
Some see them as you stated fallen angels. Others see them as sons of Seth. Still others have called them sons of kings or wise men.

I apologize for stating your idea had no Biblical support I should have said your theory is not universally accepted.

In regards to 1 Peter 3:19 I believe Jesus did go to the holding place of fallen spirits and preached his gospel to them. No not to rub their noses in it but rather to show the justice of God for locking them away in the first place.

EdB
  who are the spirits in this verse?      
1 Peter
  Answer: One of the most decietful lies is that Jesus died spiritually and went to Gehhenna, which is the place of torment.There were two compartments in Hell; the place of torment and Paradise, [Abrahams bosom]. Jesus when he died went to paradise and not the place of torment. He preached to those who were there the same gospel that he preached on earth. They believed that He was the Son of God [Messiah],and he,[Jesus], led them into heaven. Satan was never in Hell and he does not want to go there! He will eventually go there in due time. The error [heresey], is that those who teach that Jesus suffered in Gehhenna, to complete the salvation proccess, are themselves in darkness and pervert the truth of the gospel! Only the blood Of Jesus washes our sins away! A little leven, levens the whole lump! If your charasmatic preacher is teaching such errors, flee from him and try and find a church that is not charasmatic.Also remember that before the flood there was no law given. Were there is no law there is no transgression.
  Did Jesus enter into Hell? HopeStreet      
1 Peter
  I was told that 1Peter 3:19 is the scriptural backing for the idea that Jesus went to hell. I cannot substantiate this and I request clarification and scriptural references if it is believed that He did. re: Apostles Creed
  Did Jesus enter into Hell? HopeStreet      
1 Peter
  Hope, using Search please type in these three words: Jesus descended hell. This will lead you to more multi-faceted posts on this subject than you may wish to read! --Hank
  Guidance composing topical devotional...      
1 Peter
  20020117 Thursday

SUBJECT: Guidance for composing topical (in CAPS) devotional from pre-selected respective verses from the book of ROMANS.

Our congregation is undertaking a new and exciting project for the Lenten season celebration.

We are putting together a book containing a daily devotional composed by a member, alternating daily through FAITH, HOPE, and LOVE.

I have elected to compose contributions to this effort in the following TOPICs (below) based on my personal inspiration from my personal reading and interpretation.

I've never done an exercise of this nature, and would appreciate some guidance accomplishing it. Perhaps someone could provide an example from a favorite verse(s) [not listed here?] to "kick start" me.

TOPIC Book V:er-ses ;-)
----- ---------------
FAITH: Romans 3:3-8
HOPE: Romans 8:18-28
LOVE: Romans 13:8-10


Yours in Christ †

GentleNewbie
  Did Jesus enter into Hell? HopeStreet      
1 Peter
  Dear HopeStreet,

Greetings in the name of Jesus!

Indeed, this has been 'hashed over' on several occasions. :-)

"(Now this expression, "He ascended," what does it mean except that He also had descended into the lower parts of the earth? He who descended is Himself also He who ascended far above all the heavens, so that He might fill all things.)" Ephesians 4:9,10 NASB.

Please consider, though, that Jesus did not 'fall' into hell. He 'went' there with a purpose, clearly written in the context of the above verses. He knew where and why He went, and accomplished every thing He set out to do! Victory over death and hell! And it was no 'great conflict' either. Jesus won total victory with a breath.

In Christ Jesus, charis
  Did Jesus enter into Hell? HopeStreet      
1 Peter
  1 Peter 3:19 '*preached.* Between Christ's death and resurrection, His living spirit went to the demon spirits bound in the abyss and proclaimed that, in spite of His death, He had triumphed over them' (MacArthur Study Bible, Word Publishing, 1997).

(Now this expression, "He ascended," what does it mean except that He also had descended into the lower parts of the earth? He who descended is Himself also He who ascended far above all the heavens, so that He might fill all things.) Ephesians 4:9,10 NASB.

4:9 '*ascended.* Jesus' ascension from earth to heaven (Acts 1:9-11), where he forever reigns with His Father.

'*first descended.* This refers to Christ's incarnation, when He came down from heaven as a man into the earth of suffering and death.

'*the lower parts of the earth.* These are in contrast to the highest heavens to which He afterward ascended. The phrase here does not point to a specific place, but to the great depth, as it were, of the incarnation, including Christ's descent, between His crucifixion and resurrection beyond the earth, the grave, and death, into the very pit of the demons, "the spirits in prison"' (MacArthur Study Bible, Word Publishing, 1997).
  Guidance composing topical devotional...      
1 Peter
  Gentle,

How about:

FAITH: Romans 1:5

HOPE: 1 Peter 1:13-14

LOVE: 1 Peter 1:22

Faith, hope and love in the context of obedience.

Emmaus


  Guidance composing topical devotional...      
1 Peter
  20020118 Friday

(To All:)

Pleased to reiterate...
...
I have _elected_ to compose contributions to this effort in the following TOPICs (below) based on my personal inspiration from my personal reading and interpretation.
...
ELIMINATING AMBIGUITY: THESE (NEXT) ARE _THE_ TOPICS *AND* * FIXED * ASSOCIATED _SCRIPTURES_ I * MUST * WORK WITHIN:
***
...
FAITH: Romans 3:3-8
HOPE: Romans 8:18-28
LOVE: Romans 13:8-10
...

Now, RE-STATING:

The challenge of this congregational Fellowship project is to compose a short (1-3 sentence(s)) devotional DIRECTLY RELATED TO THE TOPIC (FAITH*LOVE*HOPE) FROM THE CONTEXTUAL GIST OF THE CORRESPONDING or RESPECTIVE SCRIPTURAL PASSAGES CITED IN ROMANS (3:3-8*8:18-28*13:8-10) *O*N*L*Y*!

I've been wrestling with this task for several days. As a Newbie, scriptural passages do not yet "hit me between the eyes" -- so to speak! ;-)

Example: I am uncertain what LESSON/ENLIGHTENED message regarding FAITH is gleaned FROM ROMANS 3:3-8. In order to compose a salient (prayerful) devotion, I must understand the intent of the scriptural PASSAGES (ROMANS 3:3-8).

My hope is that this note eliminates AMBIGUITY from my original inquiry.

Thank you in advance for your gentle indulgence!

Yours in Christ †

GentleNewbie
  Guidance composing topical devotional...      
1 Peter
  Gentle,

Sorry I misunderstood your request for help. I should have studied your post more closely. I am not sure any insights given on other verses would be helpful in giving you insights into Rom 3:3-8, which you indicate must be your own. But asking the right questions may be helpful. What is Paul saying about God's faithfulness in contrast to man's failure to be faithful?

Emmaus
  how do you make sense of this verse?      
1 Peter
  1 Peter 1:17 (if you address as Father the One Who) How can you say this where it makes sense? what does it mean
  how do you make sense of this verse?      
1 Peter
  Hello,

Look at the previous verses. Beginning in verse 13, Peter says for us to "gird your minds for action." During Biblical times, Hebrews wore robes, even during combat. Before a battle began, they would take a scarf, belt, or sash and tie it around them, and tuck their robes into it. It aided in preventing them from falling in the middle of battle. As time passed, the phrase "Gird yourself" meant "prepare for what is immediately coming". Then we go onto what we should prepare for.

In verse 14, Peter tallks to us in the context of being children. In that discussion, he tells us to be holy, or separate from the world as Christ was separate. Our behavior should reflect Christ's.

Then we move on to verse 17 and on until verse 21. Here, Peter changes gears from reflecting upon how we relate to christ, to focusing upon how we relate to God the Father. The main point throughout this particular passage is how we should conduct ourselves before the world around us.

Now, let's look at verse 17 in particular. In Matthew 23:9, Jesus tells us to not call anyone on earth your "Father", but to only refer to God in Heaven as "Father". You take that, along with the following description that Peter gives of someone who "impartially judges according to each man's work ...", and you have an accurate description of God the Father.

So, here you have Peter telling us to remain obedient to God the Father as children should be. To remain separate from this world, and to conduct ourselves accordingly. Then he tells us that the one we call "Father" is also an impartial judge who judges our actions as well, and that we should be fearful of that.

Jesus Loves You!

Jesusman
  Did Jesus enter into Hell? HopeStreet      
1 Peter
  I am forced to disagree with this interpretation. The text for this passage is as follows:

"For as Christ also died for sins once for all, the just for the unjust, so that He might bring us to God, having been put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the Spirit; in which also He went and made proclimation to the spirits now in prison, who once were disobedient, when the patience of God kept waiting in the days of Noah, during the construction of the ark, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were brought safely through the water." - 1 Peter 3:18-20

This passage goes on to affirm the purpose of baptism. Peter here is discussing baptism, for which Noah was the paradigm. There can be no serious question as to whom the "spirits now in prison" are because Peter flat out tells us. They were the people to whom the Spirit of God preached to, through Noah, during the construction of the ark. This verse is a testimony to the work of the Spirit, not some reference to Christ preaching in hell, as some interpret it.
  does God ever say no      
1 Peter
  does God ever say no
  does God ever say no      
1 Peter
  Well we know what hampers prayer.1 Peter 3 7. Jesus said anyhing we ask in according to his will it shall be done. Who wants not do be in His will? So maybe we should always ask if this is your will. But if we ask amiss and it is not His will is that no? I tend to think the answer is ask again this time according to whats best for us. Paul most assuredly was turned away several times from places he wanted to go. This is just my thoughts. What do you think.
  If we ask for healing does God answer no      
1 Peter
  so since the word of God tells us that by the strips Jesus bore we are healed and God said he sent His word and healed them we should asume that its God's will that we be healed so if we ask for healing God would not tell us no I have found no where in the New Testament where Jesus ever said no when someone came to Him for healing so would God ever answer with no for a prayer request for healing
  If we ask for healing does God answer no      
1 Peter
  God answers prayer according to His will.
 
To See More, Click Here...
 
 
Search
Word(s) or ID#

   
Advanced Search

Get Bible Text
New Bible Window
Translation:


Search Range:

Search word(s):

   
Translation:

Book Chapter:verse

More Online Resources

 
 
 

The Lockman Foundation does not pre-screen Postings.
Postings are the opinions of others and may or may not represent a commonly held view.

StudyBibleForum.com copyright © The Lockman Foundation 2001
Permission to quote guidelines. Report problems to studybibleforum@lockman.org

Gospel Communications Alliance Member

Study Bible Forum